NURS 5432 Exam 1 V3
1. According to the USPSTF guidelines, which patient population should receive a one-time
screening for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) via ultrasonography?
A. Women aged 65 to 75 who have ever smoked.
B. Men aged 65 to 75 who have never smoked.
C. Men aged 65 to 75 who have ever smoked.
D. Women aged 50 to 60 with a family history of AAA.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The USPSTF recommends a one-time screening for AAA by ultrasonography
in men aged 65 to 75 years who have ever smoked. This recommendation is based on the
significant decrease in AAA-related mortality observed in this specific demographic. For
men who have never smoked, the benefit is less clear, and for women, the prevalence is too
low to justify routine screening.
2. A 45-year-old male presents with symptoms of Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ABRS). What
is the first-line antibiotic treatment recommended by current guidelines for an adult without
allergies?
A. Azithromycin 500mg daily for 3 days.
B. Amoxicillin-Clavulanate 875/125mg twice daily.
C. Levofloxacin 750mg daily.
,D. Doxycycline 100mg twice daily.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Amoxicillin-Clavulanate is considered the first-line therapy for ABRS due to
the increasing resistance of Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.
Macrolides like Azithromycin are no longer recommended due to high rates of resistance
among these pathogens. Respiratory fluoroquinolones are reserved for patients with no
other options or those who have failed initial therapy.
3. Which of the following describes a ‘Secondary Prevention’ intervention?
A. Administering an annual influenza vaccine to a healthy adult.
B. Performing a screening colonoscopy on a 50-year-old asymptomatic patient.
C. Prescribing a statin for a patient who recently had a myocardial infarction.
D. Educating high school students about the dangers of vaping.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening to identify
diseases in their earliest, most treatable stages. Colonoscopies and mammograms are
classic examples of secondary prevention because they seek to find pathology before
symptoms arise. In contrast, immunizations are primary prevention, and post-MI
management is tertiary prevention.
, 4. A patient presents with a classic ‘honey-colored’ crusted lesion around the mouth. What is
the most likely diagnosis and causative organism?
A. Cellulitis caused by Pasteurella multocida.
B. Impetigo caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Erysipelas caused by Group A Streptococcus.
D. Tinea Corporis caused by Trichophyton rubrum.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The honey-colored crust is a pathognomonic finding for non-bullous
impetigo. This condition is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus or
Streptococcus pyogenes. Treatment usually involves topical mupirocin for localized lesions
or oral antibiotics for more widespread involvement.
5. In the management of Asthma according to the GINA 2023 guidelines, what is now the
preferred ‘reliever’ therapy across all steps?
A. Short-acting beta-agonists (SABA) alone.
B. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)-formoterol.
C. Oral corticosteroids as needed.
D. Long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA).
Correct Answer: B
1. According to the USPSTF guidelines, which patient population should receive a one-time
screening for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) via ultrasonography?
A. Women aged 65 to 75 who have ever smoked.
B. Men aged 65 to 75 who have never smoked.
C. Men aged 65 to 75 who have ever smoked.
D. Women aged 50 to 60 with a family history of AAA.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The USPSTF recommends a one-time screening for AAA by ultrasonography
in men aged 65 to 75 years who have ever smoked. This recommendation is based on the
significant decrease in AAA-related mortality observed in this specific demographic. For
men who have never smoked, the benefit is less clear, and for women, the prevalence is too
low to justify routine screening.
2. A 45-year-old male presents with symptoms of Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ABRS). What
is the first-line antibiotic treatment recommended by current guidelines for an adult without
allergies?
A. Azithromycin 500mg daily for 3 days.
B. Amoxicillin-Clavulanate 875/125mg twice daily.
C. Levofloxacin 750mg daily.
,D. Doxycycline 100mg twice daily.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Amoxicillin-Clavulanate is considered the first-line therapy for ABRS due to
the increasing resistance of Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.
Macrolides like Azithromycin are no longer recommended due to high rates of resistance
among these pathogens. Respiratory fluoroquinolones are reserved for patients with no
other options or those who have failed initial therapy.
3. Which of the following describes a ‘Secondary Prevention’ intervention?
A. Administering an annual influenza vaccine to a healthy adult.
B. Performing a screening colonoscopy on a 50-year-old asymptomatic patient.
C. Prescribing a statin for a patient who recently had a myocardial infarction.
D. Educating high school students about the dangers of vaping.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening to identify
diseases in their earliest, most treatable stages. Colonoscopies and mammograms are
classic examples of secondary prevention because they seek to find pathology before
symptoms arise. In contrast, immunizations are primary prevention, and post-MI
management is tertiary prevention.
, 4. A patient presents with a classic ‘honey-colored’ crusted lesion around the mouth. What is
the most likely diagnosis and causative organism?
A. Cellulitis caused by Pasteurella multocida.
B. Impetigo caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Erysipelas caused by Group A Streptococcus.
D. Tinea Corporis caused by Trichophyton rubrum.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The honey-colored crust is a pathognomonic finding for non-bullous
impetigo. This condition is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus or
Streptococcus pyogenes. Treatment usually involves topical mupirocin for localized lesions
or oral antibiotics for more widespread involvement.
5. In the management of Asthma according to the GINA 2023 guidelines, what is now the
preferred ‘reliever’ therapy across all steps?
A. Short-acting beta-agonists (SABA) alone.
B. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)-formoterol.
C. Oral corticosteroids as needed.
D. Long-acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA).
Correct Answer: B
