NUR 272 | NUR 272 Care of Childbearing & Childrearing Family Study Guide & Exam Prep 2026–
2027 | Medgar Evers College NUR 272 Nursing Review | Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Childbearing
Family, Childrearing Family, Antepartum Care, Prenatal Assessment, Pregnancy, Fetal
Assessment, High-Risk Pregnancy, Pregnancy Complications, Gestational Diabetes, Preeclampsia,
Eclampsia, Hypertension in Pregnancy, Placenta Previa, Placental Abruption, Preterm Labor,
Labor & Delivery, Stages of Labor, Fetal Monitoring, Intrapartum Nursing, Postpartum Care,
Postpartum Hemorrhage, Newborn Assessment, Normal Newborn, Newborn Complications,
Pediatric Growth & Development, Pediatric Assessment, Childhood Disorders, Family-Centered
Care, Patient Education, Clinical Judgment, Prioritization & Nursing Interventions | Practice
Questions, Case-Based Review & Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a patient who has been prescribed digoxin.
Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse report
immediately to the healthcare provider?
A. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
C. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate and increases
contractility. A heart rate below 60 beats per minute in an adult is considered
bradycardia and may indicate digoxin toxicity. The nurse should withhold the
medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous heparin
therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the
effectiveness of the therapy?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International normalized ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Bleeding time
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT), which should be maintained at 1.5 to 2.5 times the
control value. PT and INR are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
,Question 3: A nurse is teaching a patient about a low-sodium diet. Which food
item should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?
A. Fresh apples
B. Canned soup
C. Steamed broccoli
D. Grilled chicken breast without seasoning
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Canned soup
Rationale: Canned soups are typically high in sodium due to added salt as a
preservative and flavor enhancer. Fresh fruits, steamed vegetables, and
unseasoned grilled meats are low in sodium and appropriate for a low-sodium
diet.
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected peptic ulcer. Which
clinical manifestation is most indicative of a duodenal ulcer?
A. Pain that occurs 30 minutes after meals
B. Pain that occurs 2 to 3 hours after meals
C. Pain that is worsened by food intake
D. Pain that radiates to the left shoulder
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Pain that occurs 2 to 3 hours after meals
Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain typically occurs 2 to 3 hours after meals and may
be relieved by food intake. Gastric ulcer pain typically occurs 30 minutes to 1 hour
after meals and may be worsened by eating.
Question 5: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the patient's vital signs
B. Verify the blood product with another nurse
C. Prime the intravenous tubing with normal saline
D. Assess the patient for a history of transfusion reactions
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify the blood product with another nurse
Rationale: The first and most critical step before administering a blood
transfusion is verifying the blood product with another qualified healthcare
,professional to ensure patient safety and prevent hemolytic transfusion reactions.
Vital signs and history assessment are also important but verification is the
priority safety check.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate for this
patient?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 liters per minute
B. Simple face mask at 8 liters per minute
C. Venturi mask at 2 to 4 liters per minute
D. Non-rebreather mask at 10 liters per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Venturi mask at 2 to 4 liters per minute
Rationale: Patients with COPD are at risk for carbon dioxide retention and should
receive controlled low-flow oxygen. A Venturi mask delivers a precise oxygen
concentration and is the preferred method for COPD patients requiring low-flow
oxygen therapy.
Question 7: A nurse is assessing a patient who is taking furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is the patient at greatest risk for developing?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes increased excretion of
potassium in the urine, placing the patient at risk for hypokalemia. Nurses should
monitor potassium levels and encourage potassium-rich foods or
supplementation as prescribed.
Question 8: A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a patient who
has experienced a stroke. Which finding indicates damage to the left
hemisphere of the brain?
, A. Spatial neglect
B. Impulsive behavior
C. Right-sided hemiplegia
D. Poor judgment
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Right-sided hemiplegia
Rationale: The left hemisphere of the brain controls the right side of the body.
Damage to the left hemisphere typically results in right-sided hemiplegia, as well
as language deficits such as aphasia. Spatial neglect and impulsive behavior are
associated with right hemisphere damage.
Question 9: A nurse is administering insulin to a patient with diabetes mellitus.
Which site should the nurse select for subcutaneous insulin injection?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Abdomen
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Gluteus maximus
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Abdomen
Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous insulin injection
because it provides the most consistent absorption rate. The abdomen should be
rotated systematically to prevent lipodystrophy. Intramuscular sites are not
appropriate for routine insulin administration.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned from surgery.
Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
B. Heart rate of 92 beats per minute
C. Oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
D. Temperature of 37.2 degrees Celsius
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% is below the normal range of 95% to 100%
and indicates hypoxemia. This finding requires immediate intervention, such as
2027 | Medgar Evers College NUR 272 Nursing Review | Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Childbearing
Family, Childrearing Family, Antepartum Care, Prenatal Assessment, Pregnancy, Fetal
Assessment, High-Risk Pregnancy, Pregnancy Complications, Gestational Diabetes, Preeclampsia,
Eclampsia, Hypertension in Pregnancy, Placenta Previa, Placental Abruption, Preterm Labor,
Labor & Delivery, Stages of Labor, Fetal Monitoring, Intrapartum Nursing, Postpartum Care,
Postpartum Hemorrhage, Newborn Assessment, Normal Newborn, Newborn Complications,
Pediatric Growth & Development, Pediatric Assessment, Childhood Disorders, Family-Centered
Care, Patient Education, Clinical Judgment, Prioritization & Nursing Interventions | Practice
Questions, Case-Based Review & Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a patient who has been prescribed digoxin.
Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse report
immediately to the healthcare provider?
A. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
C. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate and increases
contractility. A heart rate below 60 beats per minute in an adult is considered
bradycardia and may indicate digoxin toxicity. The nurse should withhold the
medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous heparin
therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the
effectiveness of the therapy?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International normalized ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Bleeding time
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT), which should be maintained at 1.5 to 2.5 times the
control value. PT and INR are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
,Question 3: A nurse is teaching a patient about a low-sodium diet. Which food
item should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?
A. Fresh apples
B. Canned soup
C. Steamed broccoli
D. Grilled chicken breast without seasoning
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Canned soup
Rationale: Canned soups are typically high in sodium due to added salt as a
preservative and flavor enhancer. Fresh fruits, steamed vegetables, and
unseasoned grilled meats are low in sodium and appropriate for a low-sodium
diet.
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected peptic ulcer. Which
clinical manifestation is most indicative of a duodenal ulcer?
A. Pain that occurs 30 minutes after meals
B. Pain that occurs 2 to 3 hours after meals
C. Pain that is worsened by food intake
D. Pain that radiates to the left shoulder
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Pain that occurs 2 to 3 hours after meals
Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain typically occurs 2 to 3 hours after meals and may
be relieved by food intake. Gastric ulcer pain typically occurs 30 minutes to 1 hour
after meals and may be worsened by eating.
Question 5: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the patient's vital signs
B. Verify the blood product with another nurse
C. Prime the intravenous tubing with normal saline
D. Assess the patient for a history of transfusion reactions
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify the blood product with another nurse
Rationale: The first and most critical step before administering a blood
transfusion is verifying the blood product with another qualified healthcare
,professional to ensure patient safety and prevent hemolytic transfusion reactions.
Vital signs and history assessment are also important but verification is the
priority safety check.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate for this
patient?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 liters per minute
B. Simple face mask at 8 liters per minute
C. Venturi mask at 2 to 4 liters per minute
D. Non-rebreather mask at 10 liters per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Venturi mask at 2 to 4 liters per minute
Rationale: Patients with COPD are at risk for carbon dioxide retention and should
receive controlled low-flow oxygen. A Venturi mask delivers a precise oxygen
concentration and is the preferred method for COPD patients requiring low-flow
oxygen therapy.
Question 7: A nurse is assessing a patient who is taking furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is the patient at greatest risk for developing?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes increased excretion of
potassium in the urine, placing the patient at risk for hypokalemia. Nurses should
monitor potassium levels and encourage potassium-rich foods or
supplementation as prescribed.
Question 8: A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a patient who
has experienced a stroke. Which finding indicates damage to the left
hemisphere of the brain?
, A. Spatial neglect
B. Impulsive behavior
C. Right-sided hemiplegia
D. Poor judgment
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Right-sided hemiplegia
Rationale: The left hemisphere of the brain controls the right side of the body.
Damage to the left hemisphere typically results in right-sided hemiplegia, as well
as language deficits such as aphasia. Spatial neglect and impulsive behavior are
associated with right hemisphere damage.
Question 9: A nurse is administering insulin to a patient with diabetes mellitus.
Which site should the nurse select for subcutaneous insulin injection?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Abdomen
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Gluteus maximus
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Abdomen
Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous insulin injection
because it provides the most consistent absorption rate. The abdomen should be
rotated systematically to prevent lipodystrophy. Intramuscular sites are not
appropriate for routine insulin administration.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned from surgery.
Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
B. Heart rate of 92 beats per minute
C. Oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
D. Temperature of 37.2 degrees Celsius
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Oxygen saturation of 88% on room air
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% is below the normal range of 95% to 100%
and indicates hypoxemia. This finding requires immediate intervention, such as
