NGN ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR 2026/2027 Original Practice
Questions With Answers & Detailed
Rationales
SECTION I — FUNDAMENTALS &
SAFETY
Questions 1–35
1. A nurse enters the room of a client who is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via
nasal cannula. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
B. Dry nasal mucosa
C. Petroleum-based ointment around the nares
D. Respiratory rate of 18/min
Answer: C
Rationale: Petroleum products are flammable and should not be used around oxygen. A water-
soluble lubricant is preferred. The other findings are not immediately dangerous.
2. A client has a newly inserted nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse
take before initiating tube feeding?
A. Auscultate for a whooshing sound
B. Obtain radiographic confirmation of placement
C. Place the client flat
D. Flush the tube with 100 mL of water
Answer: B
Rationale: Initial NG-tube placement should be verified radiographically according to
institutional policy. Air auscultation is not sufficiently reliable for confirming placement.
,3. Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing falls in an older adult
who is confused?
A. Raise all four side rails
B. Keep the bed in the lowest position
C. Keep the room completely dark
D. Apply restraints routinely
Answer: B
Rationale: A low bed reduces injury risk. Four side rails can function as a restraint, and
restraints should not be used routinely.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer medication. Which action is part of safe
medication administration?
A. Compare the medication with the MAR only once
B. Use two identifiers before administration
C. Document administration before giving the drug
D. Ask another client to verify the medication
Answer: B
Rationale: Two client identifiers are used to prevent medication errors. Documentation occurs
after administration.
5. A client has a pressure injury with full-thickness skin loss and visible adipose
tissue. Which stage is appropriate?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: C
Rationale: Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss with visible adipose tissue.
Stage 4 involves exposed or directly palpable deeper structures such as fascia, muscle, tendon,
cartilage, or bone.
,6. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client requesting a blanket
B. Client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 5/10
C. Client with COPD who is newly confused and restless
D. Client awaiting discharge instructions
Answer: C
Rationale: New confusion and restlessness can indicate worsening hypoxemia or hypercapnia.
Airway and breathing concerns take priority.
7. A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile infection. Which
precaution is required?
A. Droplet
B. Airborne
C. Contact
D. Protective isolation
Answer: C
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions and meticulous hand hygiene. Soap and
water are preferred because alcohol-based sanitizer does not reliably eliminate spores.
8. Which action demonstrates appropriate sterile technique?
A. Keeping sterile hands below the waist
B. Reaching across a sterile field
C. Keeping sterile objects within the sterile field
D. Turning away from the sterile field
Answer: C
Rationale: Sterile objects must remain within the sterile field. Anything below waist level,
outside the field, or contaminated by reaching over it is considered contaminated.
, 9. A client reports pain of 8/10 one hour after receiving an opioid. What should
the nurse do first?
A. Administer another dose immediately
B. Assess respiratory rate and sedation level
C. Tell the client to wait until the next scheduled dose
D. Discontinue all pain medication
Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression and sedation. Safety assessment is required
before additional opioid administration.
10. Which finding indicates adequate hydration?
A. Dark concentrated urine
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Moist mucous membranes
D. Poor skin turgor
Answer: C
Rationale: Moist mucous membranes are consistent with adequate hydration. Dark urine,
hypotension, and poor turgor can indicate fluid deficit.
11. A client is prescribed a regular diet. Which meal selection is most
appropriate?
A. Clear broth and gelatin
B. Scrambled eggs, toast, fruit, and milk
C. Apple juice and tea
D. Pudding and gelatin
Answer: B
Rationale: A regular diet permits a wide variety of foods unless otherwise restricted.
12. A nurse discovers a medication error after administration. What is the
priority action?
PREDICTOR 2026/2027 Original Practice
Questions With Answers & Detailed
Rationales
SECTION I — FUNDAMENTALS &
SAFETY
Questions 1–35
1. A nurse enters the room of a client who is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via
nasal cannula. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
B. Dry nasal mucosa
C. Petroleum-based ointment around the nares
D. Respiratory rate of 18/min
Answer: C
Rationale: Petroleum products are flammable and should not be used around oxygen. A water-
soluble lubricant is preferred. The other findings are not immediately dangerous.
2. A client has a newly inserted nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse
take before initiating tube feeding?
A. Auscultate for a whooshing sound
B. Obtain radiographic confirmation of placement
C. Place the client flat
D. Flush the tube with 100 mL of water
Answer: B
Rationale: Initial NG-tube placement should be verified radiographically according to
institutional policy. Air auscultation is not sufficiently reliable for confirming placement.
,3. Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing falls in an older adult
who is confused?
A. Raise all four side rails
B. Keep the bed in the lowest position
C. Keep the room completely dark
D. Apply restraints routinely
Answer: B
Rationale: A low bed reduces injury risk. Four side rails can function as a restraint, and
restraints should not be used routinely.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer medication. Which action is part of safe
medication administration?
A. Compare the medication with the MAR only once
B. Use two identifiers before administration
C. Document administration before giving the drug
D. Ask another client to verify the medication
Answer: B
Rationale: Two client identifiers are used to prevent medication errors. Documentation occurs
after administration.
5. A client has a pressure injury with full-thickness skin loss and visible adipose
tissue. Which stage is appropriate?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: C
Rationale: Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss with visible adipose tissue.
Stage 4 involves exposed or directly palpable deeper structures such as fascia, muscle, tendon,
cartilage, or bone.
,6. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client requesting a blanket
B. Client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 5/10
C. Client with COPD who is newly confused and restless
D. Client awaiting discharge instructions
Answer: C
Rationale: New confusion and restlessness can indicate worsening hypoxemia or hypercapnia.
Airway and breathing concerns take priority.
7. A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile infection. Which
precaution is required?
A. Droplet
B. Airborne
C. Contact
D. Protective isolation
Answer: C
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions and meticulous hand hygiene. Soap and
water are preferred because alcohol-based sanitizer does not reliably eliminate spores.
8. Which action demonstrates appropriate sterile technique?
A. Keeping sterile hands below the waist
B. Reaching across a sterile field
C. Keeping sterile objects within the sterile field
D. Turning away from the sterile field
Answer: C
Rationale: Sterile objects must remain within the sterile field. Anything below waist level,
outside the field, or contaminated by reaching over it is considered contaminated.
, 9. A client reports pain of 8/10 one hour after receiving an opioid. What should
the nurse do first?
A. Administer another dose immediately
B. Assess respiratory rate and sedation level
C. Tell the client to wait until the next scheduled dose
D. Discontinue all pain medication
Answer: B
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression and sedation. Safety assessment is required
before additional opioid administration.
10. Which finding indicates adequate hydration?
A. Dark concentrated urine
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Moist mucous membranes
D. Poor skin turgor
Answer: C
Rationale: Moist mucous membranes are consistent with adequate hydration. Dark urine,
hypotension, and poor turgor can indicate fluid deficit.
11. A client is prescribed a regular diet. Which meal selection is most
appropriate?
A. Clear broth and gelatin
B. Scrambled eggs, toast, fruit, and milk
C. Apple juice and tea
D. Pudding and gelatin
Answer: B
Rationale: A regular diet permits a wide variety of foods unless otherwise restricted.
12. A nurse discovers a medication error after administration. What is the
priority action?
