NGN ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor
2026/2027 Original Practice Questions 1–100
Answers + detailed rationales
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops severe dyspnea, an oxygen saturation of
82%, and cyanosis. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a complete health history
B. Apply oxygen according to the prescribed protocol
C. Obtain a sputum specimen
D. Notify the health-care provider
Answer: B. Apply oxygen according to the prescribed protocol
Rationale: Severe hypoxemia is an immediate threat to oxygenation. The nurse should intervene
promptly to improve oxygen delivery while continuing assessment and notifying the provider as
appropriate.
Question 2
A client with heart failure is preparing for discharge. Which statement indicates correct
understanding of home management?
A. “I will weigh myself once a month.”
B. “I should stop my medications when I feel better.”
C. “I will report a rapid increase in my weight.”
D. “I should increase my sodium intake if I develop edema.”
Answer: C. “I will report a rapid increase in my weight.”
Rationale: Rapid weight gain can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. Daily
weights are useful for detecting changes early.
Question 3
A conscious client with diabetes has a blood glucose level of 54 mg/dL. Which intervention is
appropriate?
,A. Administer rapid-acting insulin
B. Give a fast-acting carbohydrate
C. Restrict oral intake
D. Administer a long-acting carbohydrate only
Answer: B. Give a fast-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: A conscious client who can safely swallow should receive approximately 15 g of
rapidly absorbed carbohydrate, followed by reassessment of glucose.
Question 4
A client receiving an opioid analgesic is difficult to arouse and has a respiratory rate of 6/min.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory
depression.
Question 5
A client receiving chemotherapy has an absolute neutrophil count of 400/mm³ and a temperature
of 38.3°C (100.9°F). What is the priority nursing action?
A. Encourage increased fluid intake
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Place the client in a warm bath
D. Administer acetaminophen and reassess tomorrow
Answer: B. Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Fever in a severely neutropenic client can indicate a serious infection and requires
prompt evaluation and treatment.
,Question 6
Which finding is most consistent with an acute stroke?
A. Bilateral ankle edema
B. Sudden unilateral facial drooping and weakness
C. Gradual weight gain
D. Increased appetite
Answer: B. Sudden unilateral facial drooping and weakness
Rationale: Sudden neurologic deficits such as facial asymmetry, unilateral weakness, speech
changes, or visual changes are classic stroke warning signs.
Question 7
A client with diabetes is awake, confused, diaphoretic, and able to swallow. The blood glucose
level is 48 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?
A. Give oral glucose
B. Administer regular insulin
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Give a high-protein meal only
Answer: A. Give oral glucose
Rationale: Symptomatic hypoglycemia in a client who can safely swallow should be treated
immediately with a rapidly absorbed carbohydrate.
Question 8
A client with pneumonia has increasing respiratory distress. Which assessment finding requires
the nurse's immediate attention?
A. Temperature of 38°C
B. Productive cough
C. Oxygen saturation of 84%
D. Fatigue
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 84%
, Rationale: Severe hypoxemia threatens airway and breathing and takes priority over the other
findings.
Question 9
A client taking warfarin reports black, tarry stools. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client that this is expected
B. Tell the client to take an additional dose
C. Notify the provider promptly
D. Encourage foods high in vitamin K immediately
Answer: C. Notify the provider promptly
Rationale: Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding. Warfarin increases bleeding
risk, so the finding requires prompt evaluation.
Question 10
Which action is appropriate when administering IV potassium chloride?
A. Administer it by IV push
B. Dilute it and administer using an infusion pump
C. Mix it with insulin and administer rapidly
D. Administer it undiluted through a peripheral IV
Answer: B. Dilute it and administer using an infusion pump
Rationale: IV potassium must be diluted and infused at a controlled rate. Rapid IV
administration can cause life-threatening dysrhythmias.
Question 11
A client with heart failure has crackles, bilateral peripheral edema, and a 2-kg weight gain in 48
hours. Which condition is most likely?
A. Fluid volume excess
B. Dehydration
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
2026/2027 Original Practice Questions 1–100
Answers + detailed rationales
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops severe dyspnea, an oxygen saturation of
82%, and cyanosis. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a complete health history
B. Apply oxygen according to the prescribed protocol
C. Obtain a sputum specimen
D. Notify the health-care provider
Answer: B. Apply oxygen according to the prescribed protocol
Rationale: Severe hypoxemia is an immediate threat to oxygenation. The nurse should intervene
promptly to improve oxygen delivery while continuing assessment and notifying the provider as
appropriate.
Question 2
A client with heart failure is preparing for discharge. Which statement indicates correct
understanding of home management?
A. “I will weigh myself once a month.”
B. “I should stop my medications when I feel better.”
C. “I will report a rapid increase in my weight.”
D. “I should increase my sodium intake if I develop edema.”
Answer: C. “I will report a rapid increase in my weight.”
Rationale: Rapid weight gain can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. Daily
weights are useful for detecting changes early.
Question 3
A conscious client with diabetes has a blood glucose level of 54 mg/dL. Which intervention is
appropriate?
,A. Administer rapid-acting insulin
B. Give a fast-acting carbohydrate
C. Restrict oral intake
D. Administer a long-acting carbohydrate only
Answer: B. Give a fast-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: A conscious client who can safely swallow should receive approximately 15 g of
rapidly absorbed carbohydrate, followed by reassessment of glucose.
Question 4
A client receiving an opioid analgesic is difficult to arouse and has a respiratory rate of 6/min.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory
depression.
Question 5
A client receiving chemotherapy has an absolute neutrophil count of 400/mm³ and a temperature
of 38.3°C (100.9°F). What is the priority nursing action?
A. Encourage increased fluid intake
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Place the client in a warm bath
D. Administer acetaminophen and reassess tomorrow
Answer: B. Notify the provider immediately
Rationale: Fever in a severely neutropenic client can indicate a serious infection and requires
prompt evaluation and treatment.
,Question 6
Which finding is most consistent with an acute stroke?
A. Bilateral ankle edema
B. Sudden unilateral facial drooping and weakness
C. Gradual weight gain
D. Increased appetite
Answer: B. Sudden unilateral facial drooping and weakness
Rationale: Sudden neurologic deficits such as facial asymmetry, unilateral weakness, speech
changes, or visual changes are classic stroke warning signs.
Question 7
A client with diabetes is awake, confused, diaphoretic, and able to swallow. The blood glucose
level is 48 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?
A. Give oral glucose
B. Administer regular insulin
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Give a high-protein meal only
Answer: A. Give oral glucose
Rationale: Symptomatic hypoglycemia in a client who can safely swallow should be treated
immediately with a rapidly absorbed carbohydrate.
Question 8
A client with pneumonia has increasing respiratory distress. Which assessment finding requires
the nurse's immediate attention?
A. Temperature of 38°C
B. Productive cough
C. Oxygen saturation of 84%
D. Fatigue
Answer: C. Oxygen saturation of 84%
, Rationale: Severe hypoxemia threatens airway and breathing and takes priority over the other
findings.
Question 9
A client taking warfarin reports black, tarry stools. What should the nurse do?
A. Reassure the client that this is expected
B. Tell the client to take an additional dose
C. Notify the provider promptly
D. Encourage foods high in vitamin K immediately
Answer: C. Notify the provider promptly
Rationale: Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding. Warfarin increases bleeding
risk, so the finding requires prompt evaluation.
Question 10
Which action is appropriate when administering IV potassium chloride?
A. Administer it by IV push
B. Dilute it and administer using an infusion pump
C. Mix it with insulin and administer rapidly
D. Administer it undiluted through a peripheral IV
Answer: B. Dilute it and administer using an infusion pump
Rationale: IV potassium must be diluted and infused at a controlled rate. Rapid IV
administration can cause life-threatening dysrhythmias.
Question 11
A client with heart failure has crackles, bilateral peripheral edema, and a 2-kg weight gain in 48
hours. Which condition is most likely?
A. Fluid volume excess
B. Dehydration
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
