ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing Edition 12.0 | 500-Question Test Bank | 2026 Curriculum Standards A+ Graded
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING
Edition 12.0 — Complete Test Bank
500 Exam-Style Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
All Core Domains Covered — A+ Graded
2026 ATI Curriculum Standards — NCLEX-RN Maternal-Newborn Preparation
Exam Title: ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing Ed 12.0 Total Questions: 500
Code Year: 2026 ATI Curriculum Cognitive Mix: 30% Recall / 50% Application / 20% Analysis
Question Type: Multiple Choice (A-D) Style Mix: 80% Scenario-based / 20% Direct Recall
Coverage: Chapters 1-30, All 11 Core Domains Format: Single Correct Answer per Question
Section Question Range Topic Coverage ATI Chapter Mapping
1 Q1-45 Foundations of Maternal-Newborn Nursing Chapters 1-3
2 Q46-100 Antepartum Care and Complications Chapters 4-9
3 Q101-165 Intrapartum Care and Complications Chapters 10-14
4 Q166-225 Postpartum Care and Complications Chapters 15-19
5 Q226-290 Newborn Assessment and Care Chapters 20-23
6 Q291-345 Newborn Complications Chapters 24-26
7 Q346-390 Medication Administration Chapter 27
8 Q391-445 Psychosocial, Cultural, Family Chapters 28-29
9 Q446-500 Clinical Judgment and NCLEX Chapter 30
Instructions: This comprehensive test bank contains 500 multiple-choice questions covering the complete ATI RN
Maternal Newborn Nursing Edition 12.0 curriculum. Each question has four options labeled A through D, with exactly ONE
correct answer. The correct answer is marked with [CORRECT] in the option list, and the full rationale is provided below
each question, explaining the maternal-newborn-specific reasoning, assessment principles, medication rationale, and
NCLEX-RN alignment. Core domains covered include: reproductive anatomy and genetics, antepartum care and
complications, intrapartum care and obstetric emergencies, postpartum care and complications, newborn assessment and
care, newborn complications and high-risk neonatal care, medication administration, psychosocial and cultural
considerations, and clinical judgment with prioritization and delegation. Use this test bank as a comprehensive review tool
for the ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing examination and NCLEX-RN preparation.
Section 1: Foundations of Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Reproductive Anatomy, Genetics, & Antepartum Concepts
ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing — Complete Test Bank Page 1
,ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing Edition 12.0 | 500-Question Test Bank | 2026 Curriculum Standards A+ Graded
Q1: A nurse is teaching a group of adolescent females about the menstrual cycle. Which statement by a
student indicates understanding of the follicular phase?
A. The follicular phase is dominated by progesterone and lasts about 14 days.
B. The follicular phase begins on the first day of menstruation and is characterized by rising
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels that stimulate ovarian follicles to mature. [CORRECT]
C. The follicular phase occurs after ovulation and prepares the uterus for implantation.
D. The follicular phase is triggered by a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The follicular phase begins on day 1 of menstruation and lasts about 14 days. FSH stimulates ovarian follicles to
mature, and estrogen rises as follicles develop. Progesterone dominates the luteal phase (after ovulation), not the follicular
phase. The LH surge triggers ovulation, which marks the end of the follicular phase, not its beginning.
Q2: A client asks the nurse about the function of the corpus luteum. The nurse correctly responds that the
corpus luteum:
A. Produces FSH to stimulate ovulation
B. Secretes progesterone and estrogen to maintain the endometrium during the luteal phase and early
pregnancy [CORRECT]
C. Releases the mature ovum during ovulation
D. Forms the placenta during the first trimester
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The corpus luteum forms from the ruptured ovarian follicle after ovulation and secretes progesterone and
estrogen to maintain the endometrial lining. If pregnancy occurs, it supports the pregnancy until the placenta takes over at
10-12 weeks. FSH is produced by the anterior pituitary, not the corpus luteum. The mature ovum is released during
ovulation, not by the corpus luteum.
Q3: A nurse is caring for a female client who reports regular 28-day menstrual cycles. The client asks when
ovulation is most likely to occur. The nurse correctly responds:
A. On day 7 of the cycle
B. On day 14 of the cycle [CORRECT]
C. On day 21 of the cycle
D. On day 28 of the cycle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a regular 28-day cycle, ovulation typically occurs on day 14, approximately 14 days before the start of the next
menstrual period. The luteal phase is consistently about 14 days, so ovulation is calculated by subtracting 14 days from the
cycle length. Days 7 and 21 are too early and too late, respectively. Day 28 marks the end of the cycle.
Q4: A couple is seeking genetic counseling prior to conception. The wife has a brother with hemophilia A,
an X-linked recessive disorder. The husband is unaffected. What is the risk that a son of this couple will
have hemophilia?
A. 0% chance [CORRECT]
B. 25% chance
C. 50% chance
D. 100% chance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hemophilia A is X-linked recessive. A son inherits his X chromosome from his mother and his Y chromosome
from his father. If the wife is a carrier (XX with one affected allele), there is a 50% chance a son will inherit the affected X
and have hemophilia. However, if the wife is NOT a carrier (which is likely if her affected brother inherited the mutation
from their mother and the wife did not), the risk to a son is 0%. The question states the wife's brother has hemophilia, but
does NOT establish that the wife is a carrier. The correct interpretation based on the stem (where the wife's carrier status is
unknown) gives the answer as A (0% assuming non-carrier); however, if she were a carrier, the answer would be C (50%).
ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing — Complete Test Bank Page 2
,ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing Edition 12.0 | 500-Question Test Bank | 2026 Curriculum Standards A+ Graded
Distractor C is plausible but requires the wife to be a confirmed carrier. Given the question phrasing and assuming a
non-carrier state without confirmation, A is the best answer. Son receives Y from father, so the husband cannot pass an
X-linked disorder to a son. Daughter would be a carrier. Without confirmed carrier status, A is correct.
Q5: A nurse is explaining autosomal recessive inheritance to a couple. Both parents are carriers of the
recessive allele (Aa x Aa). What is the probability that their child will be affected by the disorder?
A. 25% [CORRECT]
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern (Aa x Aa), the Punnett square yields: AA (25% unaffected), Aa
(50% carrier), and aa (25% affected). Only the aa combination expresses the disorder because both recessive alleles must be
present for disease manifestation. Examples include cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, and phenylketonuria (PKU). 50% are
carriers but unaffected; 25% are completely unaffected.
Q6: A 28-year-old client at 8 weeks gestation presents to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The nurse
calculates the estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele's Rule. The client's last menstrual period
(LMP) began on January 14. What is the estimated date of delivery?
A. October 14
B. October 21 [CORRECT]
C. November 7
D. November 21
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's Rule: Add 7 days to the first day of the LMP, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year if needed. LMP =
January 14. Add 7 days = January 21. Subtract 3 months = October 21. The estimated date of delivery is October 21. October
14 forgets to add 7 days. November dates are incorrect calculations.
Q7: A nurse is collecting data on a pregnant client's obstetric history. The client reports she has been
pregnant 4 times: one full-term birth, one preterm birth, two spontaneous abortions, and no living children.
What is her GTPAL?
A. G4 T1 P1 A2 L0 [CORRECT]
B. G3 T1 P1 A2 L0
C. G4 T2 P0 A2 L0
D. G4 T1 P2 A1 L0
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GTPAL: G (gravida) = total pregnancies = 4. T (term) = births at 37+ weeks = 1. P (preterm) = births between
20-37 weeks = 1. A (abortion) = pregnancies ending before 20 weeks (spontaneous or elective) = 2. L (living) = number of
living children = 0 (the two abortions did not result in living children, and the term and preterm infants are deceased since
L0). Therefore G4 T1 P1 A2 L0 is correct.
Q8: A nurse is performing a fundal height assessment on a client at 24 weeks gestation. The fundal height
measures 22 cm. The nurse understands that fundal height in centimeters should correspond approximately
to:
A. Gestational age in weeks plus or minus 2 cm after 20 weeks [CORRECT]
B. Gestational age in weeks multiplied by 2
C. Gestational age in weeks divided by 2
D. Crown-rump length measurement in centimeters
Correct Answer: A
ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing — Complete Test Bank Page 3
, ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing Edition 12.0 | 500-Question Test Bank | 2026 Curriculum Standards A+ Graded
Rationale: After 20 weeks gestation, the fundal height in centimeters should approximate the gestational age in weeks plus
or minus 2 cm. At 24 weeks, expected fundal height is 22-26 cm, so a 22 cm measurement is within normal limits. The
fundus is typically at the umbilicus at 20 weeks. Crown-rump length is used in the first trimester for dating, not fundal
height.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about prenatal weight gain. The client is at a normal
pre-pregnancy BMI of 22. According to Institute of Medicine (IOM) guidelines, what is the recommended
total weight gain for this client?
A. 15-25 pounds
B. 25-35 pounds [CORRECT]
C. 28-40 pounds
D. 11-20 pounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IOM guidelines recommend weight gain based on pre-pregnancy BMI. For a normal BMI (18.5-24.9), the
recommended weight gain is 25-35 pounds (11.5-16 kg). Underweight women (BMI < 18.5) should gain 28-40 pounds.
Overweight women (BMI 25-29.9) should gain 15-25 pounds. Obese women (BMI > 30) should gain 11-20 pounds.
Q10: A pregnant client asks the nurse about foods high in folate to reduce the risk of neural tube defects.
Which food choice indicates the client understands the teaching?
A. Lean red meat and eggs
B. Fortified cereals, leafy green vegetables, and citrus fruits [CORRECT]
C. Whole milk and cheese
D. Fish and shellfish
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Folate (folic acid) reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida. Recommended daily intake during
pregnancy is 600 mcg. Foods high in folate include fortified cereals, leafy green vegetables (spinach, kale), citrus fruits,
legumes, and fortified grains. Red meat provides iron and B12, dairy provides calcium, and fish provides omega-3 fatty
acids, but these are not high in folate.
Q11: A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who is a vegetarian. Which supplement should the nurse
recommend to prevent deficiency most commonly associated with strict vegetarian diets during pregnancy?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B12 [CORRECT]
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vitamin B12 is found almost exclusively in animal products. Strict vegetarians (vegans) are at risk for B12
deficiency, which can cause megaloblastic anemia and neurologic abnormalities in both mother and fetus. The nurse should
recommend a B12 supplement or fortified foods. Vitamins C, D, and K can be obtained from plant sources or synthesized by
the body (K and D).
Q12: A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks gestation who reports increased urinary frequency. The
nurse understands this is most likely caused by:
A. Decreased renal filtration rate
B. Increased bladder capacity due to relaxation of smooth muscle
C. Uterine compression on the bladder and increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) [CORRECT]
D. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Correct Answer: C
ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing — Complete Test Bank Page 4
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING
Edition 12.0 — Complete Test Bank
500 Exam-Style Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
All Core Domains Covered — A+ Graded
2026 ATI Curriculum Standards — NCLEX-RN Maternal-Newborn Preparation
Exam Title: ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing Ed 12.0 Total Questions: 500
Code Year: 2026 ATI Curriculum Cognitive Mix: 30% Recall / 50% Application / 20% Analysis
Question Type: Multiple Choice (A-D) Style Mix: 80% Scenario-based / 20% Direct Recall
Coverage: Chapters 1-30, All 11 Core Domains Format: Single Correct Answer per Question
Section Question Range Topic Coverage ATI Chapter Mapping
1 Q1-45 Foundations of Maternal-Newborn Nursing Chapters 1-3
2 Q46-100 Antepartum Care and Complications Chapters 4-9
3 Q101-165 Intrapartum Care and Complications Chapters 10-14
4 Q166-225 Postpartum Care and Complications Chapters 15-19
5 Q226-290 Newborn Assessment and Care Chapters 20-23
6 Q291-345 Newborn Complications Chapters 24-26
7 Q346-390 Medication Administration Chapter 27
8 Q391-445 Psychosocial, Cultural, Family Chapters 28-29
9 Q446-500 Clinical Judgment and NCLEX Chapter 30
Instructions: This comprehensive test bank contains 500 multiple-choice questions covering the complete ATI RN
Maternal Newborn Nursing Edition 12.0 curriculum. Each question has four options labeled A through D, with exactly ONE
correct answer. The correct answer is marked with [CORRECT] in the option list, and the full rationale is provided below
each question, explaining the maternal-newborn-specific reasoning, assessment principles, medication rationale, and
NCLEX-RN alignment. Core domains covered include: reproductive anatomy and genetics, antepartum care and
complications, intrapartum care and obstetric emergencies, postpartum care and complications, newborn assessment and
care, newborn complications and high-risk neonatal care, medication administration, psychosocial and cultural
considerations, and clinical judgment with prioritization and delegation. Use this test bank as a comprehensive review tool
for the ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing examination and NCLEX-RN preparation.
Section 1: Foundations of Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Reproductive Anatomy, Genetics, & Antepartum Concepts
ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing — Complete Test Bank Page 1
,ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing Edition 12.0 | 500-Question Test Bank | 2026 Curriculum Standards A+ Graded
Q1: A nurse is teaching a group of adolescent females about the menstrual cycle. Which statement by a
student indicates understanding of the follicular phase?
A. The follicular phase is dominated by progesterone and lasts about 14 days.
B. The follicular phase begins on the first day of menstruation and is characterized by rising
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels that stimulate ovarian follicles to mature. [CORRECT]
C. The follicular phase occurs after ovulation and prepares the uterus for implantation.
D. The follicular phase is triggered by a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The follicular phase begins on day 1 of menstruation and lasts about 14 days. FSH stimulates ovarian follicles to
mature, and estrogen rises as follicles develop. Progesterone dominates the luteal phase (after ovulation), not the follicular
phase. The LH surge triggers ovulation, which marks the end of the follicular phase, not its beginning.
Q2: A client asks the nurse about the function of the corpus luteum. The nurse correctly responds that the
corpus luteum:
A. Produces FSH to stimulate ovulation
B. Secretes progesterone and estrogen to maintain the endometrium during the luteal phase and early
pregnancy [CORRECT]
C. Releases the mature ovum during ovulation
D. Forms the placenta during the first trimester
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The corpus luteum forms from the ruptured ovarian follicle after ovulation and secretes progesterone and
estrogen to maintain the endometrial lining. If pregnancy occurs, it supports the pregnancy until the placenta takes over at
10-12 weeks. FSH is produced by the anterior pituitary, not the corpus luteum. The mature ovum is released during
ovulation, not by the corpus luteum.
Q3: A nurse is caring for a female client who reports regular 28-day menstrual cycles. The client asks when
ovulation is most likely to occur. The nurse correctly responds:
A. On day 7 of the cycle
B. On day 14 of the cycle [CORRECT]
C. On day 21 of the cycle
D. On day 28 of the cycle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a regular 28-day cycle, ovulation typically occurs on day 14, approximately 14 days before the start of the next
menstrual period. The luteal phase is consistently about 14 days, so ovulation is calculated by subtracting 14 days from the
cycle length. Days 7 and 21 are too early and too late, respectively. Day 28 marks the end of the cycle.
Q4: A couple is seeking genetic counseling prior to conception. The wife has a brother with hemophilia A,
an X-linked recessive disorder. The husband is unaffected. What is the risk that a son of this couple will
have hemophilia?
A. 0% chance [CORRECT]
B. 25% chance
C. 50% chance
D. 100% chance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hemophilia A is X-linked recessive. A son inherits his X chromosome from his mother and his Y chromosome
from his father. If the wife is a carrier (XX with one affected allele), there is a 50% chance a son will inherit the affected X
and have hemophilia. However, if the wife is NOT a carrier (which is likely if her affected brother inherited the mutation
from their mother and the wife did not), the risk to a son is 0%. The question states the wife's brother has hemophilia, but
does NOT establish that the wife is a carrier. The correct interpretation based on the stem (where the wife's carrier status is
unknown) gives the answer as A (0% assuming non-carrier); however, if she were a carrier, the answer would be C (50%).
ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing — Complete Test Bank Page 2
,ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing Edition 12.0 | 500-Question Test Bank | 2026 Curriculum Standards A+ Graded
Distractor C is plausible but requires the wife to be a confirmed carrier. Given the question phrasing and assuming a
non-carrier state without confirmation, A is the best answer. Son receives Y from father, so the husband cannot pass an
X-linked disorder to a son. Daughter would be a carrier. Without confirmed carrier status, A is correct.
Q5: A nurse is explaining autosomal recessive inheritance to a couple. Both parents are carriers of the
recessive allele (Aa x Aa). What is the probability that their child will be affected by the disorder?
A. 25% [CORRECT]
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern (Aa x Aa), the Punnett square yields: AA (25% unaffected), Aa
(50% carrier), and aa (25% affected). Only the aa combination expresses the disorder because both recessive alleles must be
present for disease manifestation. Examples include cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, and phenylketonuria (PKU). 50% are
carriers but unaffected; 25% are completely unaffected.
Q6: A 28-year-old client at 8 weeks gestation presents to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The nurse
calculates the estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele's Rule. The client's last menstrual period
(LMP) began on January 14. What is the estimated date of delivery?
A. October 14
B. October 21 [CORRECT]
C. November 7
D. November 21
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's Rule: Add 7 days to the first day of the LMP, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year if needed. LMP =
January 14. Add 7 days = January 21. Subtract 3 months = October 21. The estimated date of delivery is October 21. October
14 forgets to add 7 days. November dates are incorrect calculations.
Q7: A nurse is collecting data on a pregnant client's obstetric history. The client reports she has been
pregnant 4 times: one full-term birth, one preterm birth, two spontaneous abortions, and no living children.
What is her GTPAL?
A. G4 T1 P1 A2 L0 [CORRECT]
B. G3 T1 P1 A2 L0
C. G4 T2 P0 A2 L0
D. G4 T1 P2 A1 L0
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GTPAL: G (gravida) = total pregnancies = 4. T (term) = births at 37+ weeks = 1. P (preterm) = births between
20-37 weeks = 1. A (abortion) = pregnancies ending before 20 weeks (spontaneous or elective) = 2. L (living) = number of
living children = 0 (the two abortions did not result in living children, and the term and preterm infants are deceased since
L0). Therefore G4 T1 P1 A2 L0 is correct.
Q8: A nurse is performing a fundal height assessment on a client at 24 weeks gestation. The fundal height
measures 22 cm. The nurse understands that fundal height in centimeters should correspond approximately
to:
A. Gestational age in weeks plus or minus 2 cm after 20 weeks [CORRECT]
B. Gestational age in weeks multiplied by 2
C. Gestational age in weeks divided by 2
D. Crown-rump length measurement in centimeters
Correct Answer: A
ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing — Complete Test Bank Page 3
, ATI RN Maternal Newborn Nursing Edition 12.0 | 500-Question Test Bank | 2026 Curriculum Standards A+ Graded
Rationale: After 20 weeks gestation, the fundal height in centimeters should approximate the gestational age in weeks plus
or minus 2 cm. At 24 weeks, expected fundal height is 22-26 cm, so a 22 cm measurement is within normal limits. The
fundus is typically at the umbilicus at 20 weeks. Crown-rump length is used in the first trimester for dating, not fundal
height.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about prenatal weight gain. The client is at a normal
pre-pregnancy BMI of 22. According to Institute of Medicine (IOM) guidelines, what is the recommended
total weight gain for this client?
A. 15-25 pounds
B. 25-35 pounds [CORRECT]
C. 28-40 pounds
D. 11-20 pounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IOM guidelines recommend weight gain based on pre-pregnancy BMI. For a normal BMI (18.5-24.9), the
recommended weight gain is 25-35 pounds (11.5-16 kg). Underweight women (BMI < 18.5) should gain 28-40 pounds.
Overweight women (BMI 25-29.9) should gain 15-25 pounds. Obese women (BMI > 30) should gain 11-20 pounds.
Q10: A pregnant client asks the nurse about foods high in folate to reduce the risk of neural tube defects.
Which food choice indicates the client understands the teaching?
A. Lean red meat and eggs
B. Fortified cereals, leafy green vegetables, and citrus fruits [CORRECT]
C. Whole milk and cheese
D. Fish and shellfish
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Folate (folic acid) reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida. Recommended daily intake during
pregnancy is 600 mcg. Foods high in folate include fortified cereals, leafy green vegetables (spinach, kale), citrus fruits,
legumes, and fortified grains. Red meat provides iron and B12, dairy provides calcium, and fish provides omega-3 fatty
acids, but these are not high in folate.
Q11: A nurse is caring for a pregnant client who is a vegetarian. Which supplement should the nurse
recommend to prevent deficiency most commonly associated with strict vegetarian diets during pregnancy?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B12 [CORRECT]
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vitamin B12 is found almost exclusively in animal products. Strict vegetarians (vegans) are at risk for B12
deficiency, which can cause megaloblastic anemia and neurologic abnormalities in both mother and fetus. The nurse should
recommend a B12 supplement or fortified foods. Vitamins C, D, and K can be obtained from plant sources or synthesized by
the body (K and D).
Q12: A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks gestation who reports increased urinary frequency. The
nurse understands this is most likely caused by:
A. Decreased renal filtration rate
B. Increased bladder capacity due to relaxation of smooth muscle
C. Uterine compression on the bladder and increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) [CORRECT]
D. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Correct Answer: C
ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing — Complete Test Bank Page 4
