ATI RN FUNDAMENTALS FOR NURSING EDITION
11.0
Complete Test Bank — Chapters 1–58 · 500 Exam-Style Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales
Aligned with 2026 ATI Curriculum Standards & NCLEX-RN Test Plan · A+ Graded Quality
Chapter Mapping: Ch 1–4 Nursing Process · Ch 5–10 Safety & Infection Control · Ch 11–18 Health
Promotion · Ch 19–25 Psychosocial · Ch 26–32 Basic Care & Comfort · Ch 33–42 Pharmacology · Ch 43–50
Risk Reduction · Ch 51–58 Physiological Adaptation
Cognitive levels: 30% recall · 50% application · 20% analysis · Question style: 80% scenario-based, 20%
direct recall
SECTION 1 — Management of Care (Advocacy, Delegation, Prioritization, Case
Management, Continuity of Care, & Legal/Ethical Issues)
Q1: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] A nurse is caring for four clients. Using the nursing process,
which step should the nurse perform FIRST when beginning the shift?
A. Implementing interventions based on the prior shift's plan
B. Assessing each client to gather current data [CORRECT]
C. Evaluating the effectiveness of overnight interventions
D. Formulating new nursing diagnoses for each client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment is always the first step of the nursing process (ADPIE) because it gathers
the subjective and objective data needed to make diagnoses, plan care, and implement
interventions. Implementing, evaluating, or diagnosing without first assessing would be
premature and unsafe. ATI testing strategy: assessment first when data is incomplete.
Q2: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] Which of the following is an example of subjective data the
nurse should document?
A. Blood pressure of 134/82 mm Hg
B. Client reports pain as 7 out of 10 [CORRECT]
C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
D. Skin warm and dry to touch
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data are what the client states or feels, such as the client's report of pain
intensity. The other findings are objective — measured or observed by the nurse. ATI testing
strategy: 'reports,' 'states,' 'feels' typically indicate subjective data.
,Q3: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] A nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis 'Risk for Impaired
Skin Integrity related to immobility.' Which component of the nursing diagnosis is
'related to immobility'?
A. Defining characteristic
B. Etiology [CORRECT]
C. Diagnostic label
D. Subjective cue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a PES-format nursing diagnosis (Problem + Etiology + Signs/symptoms), the etiology
is the 'related to' factor identifying the cause or contributor. The diagnostic label is the problem
itself; defining characteristics are the signs/symptoms. ATI testing strategy: 'related to' identifies
the etiology.
Q4: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] Which nursing action best demonstrates evaluation as part of
the nursing process?
A. Reassessing a client's pain 30 minutes after administering an analgesic [CORRECT]
B. Documenting the dose of medication given
C. Calling the provider for a new order
D. Developing a new care plan for the client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Evaluation is determining the effectiveness of interventions — such as reassessing pain
after analgesic administration. Documenting and calling the provider are implementation steps;
developing a care plan is planning. ATI testing strategy: evaluation = comparing outcomes
achieved to those expected.
Q5: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] A nurse is revising a client's care plan after evaluating
outcomes. Which phase of the nursing process is the nurse demonstrating?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning [CORRECT]
D. Implementation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Revising a care plan based on evaluation outcomes is part of planning, which includes
setting priorities, establishing goals, and updating the care plan. ATI testing strategy: evaluation
data inform plan revisions — they occur in the planning phase.
Q6: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the
nurse assess FIRST?
A. A client receiving a blood transfusion who is 10 minutes into the infusion [CORRECT]
B. A client with chronic back pain requesting analgesic
C. A client scheduled for discharge at 1100 awaiting prescriptions
D. A client with type 2 diabetes awaiting breakfast tray
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client 10 minutes into a blood transfusion is at highest risk for an acute hemolytic
or allergic reaction, which typically occurs within the first 15 minutes — this client requires
immediate nursing assessment. The other clients are stable. ATI testing strategy: use ABCs,
Maslow, and acute/unstable-first frameworks.
,Q7: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse is caring for four clients. Which finding requires
IMMEDIATE intervention?
A. A postoperative client with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min [CORRECT]
B. A client with a blood pressure of 124/82 mm Hg
C. A client reporting mild incisional pain rated 3/10
D. A client with a urinary output of 240 mL over 8 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates respiratory depression and possible
opiate-induced hypoventilation requiring immediate intervention (naloxone, notify provider). The
other findings are within normal limits or non-urgent. ATI testing strategy: ABCs first —
airway/breathing compromise is always the priority.
Q8: [Ch 2: Prioritization] Using Maslow's hierarchy, which client need should the nurse
address FIRST?
A. A client who is anxious about upcoming surgery
B. A client who is short of breath with an SpO2 of 88% [CORRECT]
C. A client requesting a visit from the chaplain
D. A client who feels disrespected by staff
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physiological needs (oxygenation) sit at the base of Maslow's hierarchy and must be
addressed before safety, love/belonging, esteem, or self-actualization needs. Anxiety, spiritual
needs, and esteem needs are higher-level concerns. ATI testing strategy: physiological needs
always come first.
Q9: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse is planning care for a client with heart failure who has
dyspnea, anxiety, and a stage 2 pressure injury. Which problem should the nurse address
FIRST?
A. Impaired Skin Integrity
B. Anxiety
C. Activity Intolerance
D. Decreased Cardiac Output [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Decreased Cardiac Output is the etiology of dyspnea in heart failure and is the priority
because it affects oxygen delivery (ABCs). Skin integrity, anxiety, and activity tolerance, while
important, are secondary to immediate cardiopulmonary stability. ATI testing strategy: prioritize
ABC + life-threatening first.
, Q10: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse has four clients. Which client should the nurse assess
FIRST?
A. A client 4 hours postoperative with a urinary output of 25 mL/hr [CORRECT]
B. A client with chronic osteoarthritis requesting pain medication
C. A client awaiting physical therapy for ambulation
D. A client with a stage 1 pressure injury requiring repositioning
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Postoperative urinary output of 25 mL/hr suggests possible urinary retention or
hypovolemia and requires prompt assessment to prevent AKI. The other clients are stable with
non-urgent needs. ATI testing strategy: postoperative oliguria is an acute finding requiring
immediate evaluation.
Q11: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse working the night shift is caring for four clients. Which
client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. A client who is due for a scheduled antibiotic
B. A client with new-onset confusion and restlessness [CORRECT]
C. A client requesting a sleeping pill
D. A client who needs a dressing change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: New-onset confusion and restlessness can signal hypoxia, infection, electrolyte
imbalance, or worsening condition requiring immediate assessment. Scheduled medications,
sleeping pills, and dressing changes can wait. ATI testing strategy: new acute changes always take
priority over routine care.
Q12: [Ch 3: Delegation] Which of the following tasks can the nurse safely delegate to a
UAP?
A. Measuring vital signs on a stable client [CORRECT]
B. Administering oral medications
C. Performing an initial admission assessment
D. Evaluating a client's response to a new medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Measuring vital signs on a stable client is within UAP scope. Administering
medications, initial admission assessments, and evaluating medication effectiveness require
nursing judgment and licensure. ATI testing strategy: 5 rights of delegation — right task,
circumstance, person, communication, supervision.
Q13: [Ch 3: Delegation] Which task is appropriate to delegate to a licensed practical nurse
(LPN)?
A. Reinforcing teaching initially provided by the RN [CORRECT]
B. Developing the initial plan of care for a new admission
C. Administering IV push chemotherapy
D. Performing an initial comprehensive assessment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: LPNs can reinforce teaching initiated by an RN, monitor stable clients, perform basic
wound care, and administer oral/IM medications. RNs must perform initial assessments, develop
care plans, and administer IV chemo. ATI testing strategy: LPN scope = stable clients +
reinforcement, not initial assessment.
11.0
Complete Test Bank — Chapters 1–58 · 500 Exam-Style Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales
Aligned with 2026 ATI Curriculum Standards & NCLEX-RN Test Plan · A+ Graded Quality
Chapter Mapping: Ch 1–4 Nursing Process · Ch 5–10 Safety & Infection Control · Ch 11–18 Health
Promotion · Ch 19–25 Psychosocial · Ch 26–32 Basic Care & Comfort · Ch 33–42 Pharmacology · Ch 43–50
Risk Reduction · Ch 51–58 Physiological Adaptation
Cognitive levels: 30% recall · 50% application · 20% analysis · Question style: 80% scenario-based, 20%
direct recall
SECTION 1 — Management of Care (Advocacy, Delegation, Prioritization, Case
Management, Continuity of Care, & Legal/Ethical Issues)
Q1: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] A nurse is caring for four clients. Using the nursing process,
which step should the nurse perform FIRST when beginning the shift?
A. Implementing interventions based on the prior shift's plan
B. Assessing each client to gather current data [CORRECT]
C. Evaluating the effectiveness of overnight interventions
D. Formulating new nursing diagnoses for each client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessment is always the first step of the nursing process (ADPIE) because it gathers
the subjective and objective data needed to make diagnoses, plan care, and implement
interventions. Implementing, evaluating, or diagnosing without first assessing would be
premature and unsafe. ATI testing strategy: assessment first when data is incomplete.
Q2: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] Which of the following is an example of subjective data the
nurse should document?
A. Blood pressure of 134/82 mm Hg
B. Client reports pain as 7 out of 10 [CORRECT]
C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
D. Skin warm and dry to touch
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data are what the client states or feels, such as the client's report of pain
intensity. The other findings are objective — measured or observed by the nurse. ATI testing
strategy: 'reports,' 'states,' 'feels' typically indicate subjective data.
,Q3: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] A nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis 'Risk for Impaired
Skin Integrity related to immobility.' Which component of the nursing diagnosis is
'related to immobility'?
A. Defining characteristic
B. Etiology [CORRECT]
C. Diagnostic label
D. Subjective cue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a PES-format nursing diagnosis (Problem + Etiology + Signs/symptoms), the etiology
is the 'related to' factor identifying the cause or contributor. The diagnostic label is the problem
itself; defining characteristics are the signs/symptoms. ATI testing strategy: 'related to' identifies
the etiology.
Q4: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] Which nursing action best demonstrates evaluation as part of
the nursing process?
A. Reassessing a client's pain 30 minutes after administering an analgesic [CORRECT]
B. Documenting the dose of medication given
C. Calling the provider for a new order
D. Developing a new care plan for the client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Evaluation is determining the effectiveness of interventions — such as reassessing pain
after analgesic administration. Documenting and calling the provider are implementation steps;
developing a care plan is planning. ATI testing strategy: evaluation = comparing outcomes
achieved to those expected.
Q5: [Ch 1: Nursing Process] A nurse is revising a client's care plan after evaluating
outcomes. Which phase of the nursing process is the nurse demonstrating?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning [CORRECT]
D. Implementation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Revising a care plan based on evaluation outcomes is part of planning, which includes
setting priorities, establishing goals, and updating the care plan. ATI testing strategy: evaluation
data inform plan revisions — they occur in the planning phase.
Q6: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the
nurse assess FIRST?
A. A client receiving a blood transfusion who is 10 minutes into the infusion [CORRECT]
B. A client with chronic back pain requesting analgesic
C. A client scheduled for discharge at 1100 awaiting prescriptions
D. A client with type 2 diabetes awaiting breakfast tray
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client 10 minutes into a blood transfusion is at highest risk for an acute hemolytic
or allergic reaction, which typically occurs within the first 15 minutes — this client requires
immediate nursing assessment. The other clients are stable. ATI testing strategy: use ABCs,
Maslow, and acute/unstable-first frameworks.
,Q7: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse is caring for four clients. Which finding requires
IMMEDIATE intervention?
A. A postoperative client with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min [CORRECT]
B. A client with a blood pressure of 124/82 mm Hg
C. A client reporting mild incisional pain rated 3/10
D. A client with a urinary output of 240 mL over 8 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates respiratory depression and possible
opiate-induced hypoventilation requiring immediate intervention (naloxone, notify provider). The
other findings are within normal limits or non-urgent. ATI testing strategy: ABCs first —
airway/breathing compromise is always the priority.
Q8: [Ch 2: Prioritization] Using Maslow's hierarchy, which client need should the nurse
address FIRST?
A. A client who is anxious about upcoming surgery
B. A client who is short of breath with an SpO2 of 88% [CORRECT]
C. A client requesting a visit from the chaplain
D. A client who feels disrespected by staff
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Physiological needs (oxygenation) sit at the base of Maslow's hierarchy and must be
addressed before safety, love/belonging, esteem, or self-actualization needs. Anxiety, spiritual
needs, and esteem needs are higher-level concerns. ATI testing strategy: physiological needs
always come first.
Q9: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse is planning care for a client with heart failure who has
dyspnea, anxiety, and a stage 2 pressure injury. Which problem should the nurse address
FIRST?
A. Impaired Skin Integrity
B. Anxiety
C. Activity Intolerance
D. Decreased Cardiac Output [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Decreased Cardiac Output is the etiology of dyspnea in heart failure and is the priority
because it affects oxygen delivery (ABCs). Skin integrity, anxiety, and activity tolerance, while
important, are secondary to immediate cardiopulmonary stability. ATI testing strategy: prioritize
ABC + life-threatening first.
, Q10: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse has four clients. Which client should the nurse assess
FIRST?
A. A client 4 hours postoperative with a urinary output of 25 mL/hr [CORRECT]
B. A client with chronic osteoarthritis requesting pain medication
C. A client awaiting physical therapy for ambulation
D. A client with a stage 1 pressure injury requiring repositioning
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Postoperative urinary output of 25 mL/hr suggests possible urinary retention or
hypovolemia and requires prompt assessment to prevent AKI. The other clients are stable with
non-urgent needs. ATI testing strategy: postoperative oliguria is an acute finding requiring
immediate evaluation.
Q11: [Ch 2: Prioritization] A nurse working the night shift is caring for four clients. Which
client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. A client who is due for a scheduled antibiotic
B. A client with new-onset confusion and restlessness [CORRECT]
C. A client requesting a sleeping pill
D. A client who needs a dressing change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: New-onset confusion and restlessness can signal hypoxia, infection, electrolyte
imbalance, or worsening condition requiring immediate assessment. Scheduled medications,
sleeping pills, and dressing changes can wait. ATI testing strategy: new acute changes always take
priority over routine care.
Q12: [Ch 3: Delegation] Which of the following tasks can the nurse safely delegate to a
UAP?
A. Measuring vital signs on a stable client [CORRECT]
B. Administering oral medications
C. Performing an initial admission assessment
D. Evaluating a client's response to a new medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Measuring vital signs on a stable client is within UAP scope. Administering
medications, initial admission assessments, and evaluating medication effectiveness require
nursing judgment and licensure. ATI testing strategy: 5 rights of delegation — right task,
circumstance, person, communication, supervision.
Q13: [Ch 3: Delegation] Which task is appropriate to delegate to a licensed practical nurse
(LPN)?
A. Reinforcing teaching initially provided by the RN [CORRECT]
B. Developing the initial plan of care for a new admission
C. Administering IV push chemotherapy
D. Performing an initial comprehensive assessment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: LPNs can reinforce teaching initiated by an RN, monitor stable clients, perform basic
wound care, and administer oral/IM medications. RNs must perform initial assessments, develop
care plans, and administer IV chemo. ATI testing strategy: LPN scope = stable clients +
reinforcement, not initial assessment.
