Fundamentals of Nursing, 11th Edition
Authors: Patricia A. Potter, Anne Griffin Perry,
Patricia A. Stockert, Amy M. Hall
Target Audience: Associate Degree Nursing
(ADN) students in the United States
Licensing Exam Alignment: NCLEX-RN (2026
Test Plan)
Part Coverage: Chapters 1–14 (Unit 1: Nursing
and the Health Care Environment; Unit 2:
Caring Throughout the Life Span)
Questions: 1–70
CHAPTER 1: NURSING TODAY — Questions 1–8
1. A nurse is explaining the concept of "clinical judgment" to a group of nursing students. Which
statement by a student indicates correct understanding of this concept?
A. "Clinical judgment is the same as following a physician's orders precisely."
B. "Clinical judgment is the observed outcome of critical thinking and decision-making in client care."
C. "Clinical judgment is a linear process that ends after the evaluation phase."
D. "Clinical judgment requires memorization of all nursing diagnoses."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clinical judgment is defined by the NCSBN as the observed outcome of critical thinking
and decision-making, an iterative process that uses nursing knowledge to observe and assess
presenting situations, identify a prioritized client concern, and generate the best possible evidence-
based solutions. Option A is incorrect because clinical judgment involves independent nursing
decision-making, not mere order-following. Option C is wrong because clinical judgment is iterative
and cyclical, not linear with a defined end point. Option D is incorrect because clinical judgment
requires application and analysis, not rote memorization. This concept is foundational to the NCLEX-
RN, which explicitly measures clinical judgment processes.
2. A beginning nursing student is entering the clinical setting for the first time. According to
Benner's levels of proficiency, which level does this student represent?
A. Advanced beginner
B. Competent
,C. Novice
D. Proficient
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: According to Patricia Benner's "From Novice to Expert" model, a novice is a beginner with
no experience who relies on rules and guidelines to guide practice. Option A (advanced beginner)
describes a nurse who has had some observational experience and can identify meaningful aspects
of care. Option B (competent) describes a nurse who has been on the job for two to three years and
can anticipate nursing care needs. Option D (proficient) describes a nurse who perceives clinical
situations as a whole and learns from multiple experiences. This distinction is frequently tested
because it represents a foundational nursing theory.
3. Which historical nursing figure is credited with establishing the first nursing school based on
formal educational principles?
A. Clara Barton
B. Dorothea Dix
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Lillian Wald
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Florence Nightingale established the Nightingale Training School for Nurses at St. Thomas'
Hospital in London in 1860, which served as the first formal nursing education program. Option A is
incorrect because Clara Barton founded the American Red Cross. Option B is incorrect because
Dorothea Dix was an advocate for the mentally ill and served as Superintendent of Army Nurses
during the Civil War. Option D is incorrect because Lillian Wald founded public health nursing and the
Henry Street Settlement. Nightingale's contributions to nursing education remain a frequently tested
topic on fundamentals exams.
4. A nurse is discussing the aims of nursing with a client. Which of the following is NOT one of the
four broad aims of nursing practice?
A. To promote health
B. To prevent illness
C. To increase hospital revenue
D. To facilitate coping with disability or death
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The four aims of nursing are: to promote health, to prevent illness, to restore health, and
to facilitate coping with disability or death. Option C (to increase hospital revenue) is not a nursing
aim but rather an administrative or institutional goal. While financial considerations exist in
healthcare, they are not part of nursing's professional aims. Options A, B, and D are all legitimate
aims of nursing practice. Understanding these aims helps nurses articulate their professional role and
prioritize client-centered care.
,5. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery. The client states, "I don't understand
why I need this operation. My doctor didn't explain anything." Which nursing role is the nurse
demonstrating when explaining the procedure and verifying the client's understanding?
A. Advocate
B. Educator
C. Manager
D. Caregiver
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The educator role involves explaining concepts and facts about health, describing the
reason for routine care activities, and evaluating the client's progress in learning. Option A (advocate)
involves protecting the client's rights and ensuring informed consent, but the specific act of teaching
is the educator role. Option C (manager) involves coordinating staff and resources. Option D
(caregiver) involves providing direct physical and emotional care. This scenario tests the ability to
distinguish between overlapping nursing roles.
6. Which nursing organization is responsible for developing and updating the NCLEX-RN
examination used for licensure in the United States?
A. American Nurses Association (ANA)
B. National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
C. Sigma Theta Tau International
D. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) develops the NCLEX-RN and
NCLEX-PN examinations that candidates must pass to obtain nursing licensure. The NCSBN also
publishes the test plans that guide examination content. Option A (ANA) is the professional
organization for nurses but does not create the licensure exam. Option C (Sigma Theta Tau) is the
international honor society for nursing. Option D (AACN) focuses on nursing education standards and
advocacy. Understanding regulatory bodies is essential for professional practice.
7. A nurse is reviewing the standards of professional nursing practice. The nurse understands that
these standards serve which primary purpose?
A. To establish salary minimums for nursing positions
B. To provide a framework for evaluating nursing care quality
C. To determine which nurses qualify for specialized certification
D. To limit the scope of nursing practice to hospital settings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The standards of professional nursing practice, developed by organizations such as the
American Nurses Association, establish the framework for evaluating the quality of nursing care
delivered to clients. These standards also protect the nurse, the client, and the institution. Option A
is incorrect because salary determination is not the purpose of practice standards. Option C is
incorrect because certification eligibility is determined by specialty organizations, not practice
, standards. Option D is incorrect because nursing practice standards apply across all healthcare
settings, not just hospitals.
8. During a staff meeting, a nurse manager states, "We need to focus on evidence-based practice to
improve patient outcomes." Which statement best describes the purpose of evidence-based
practice in nursing?
A. To replace clinical judgment with research findings
B. To integrate the best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values
C. To ensure that all nurses follow identical protocols in every situation
D. To provide a method for reducing nursing documentation requirements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Evidence-based practice (EBP) is defined as the integration of the best available research
evidence with clinical expertise and patient values and preferences to make optimal clinical
decisions. Option A is incorrect because EBP does not replace clinical judgment; rather, it informs it.
Option C is incorrect because EBP acknowledges that patient uniqueness may require
individualization of care. Option D is unrelated to the purpose of EBP. Understanding EBP is critical
for NCLEX success, as it appears across multiple Client Needs categories.
CHAPTER 2: THE HEALTH CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM — Questions 9–14
9. A nurse is explaining the levels of healthcare delivery to a client. Which level of care is designed
to restore a client to optimal function after an acute illness or injury?
A. Primary care
B. Secondary care
C. Tertiary care
D. Restorative care
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary care, also known as restorative care, focuses on restoring a client to optimal
function after an acute illness or injury. This includes rehabilitation, physical therapy, and specialty
care. Option A (primary care) focuses on health promotion and prevention. Option B (secondary
care) focuses on early detection and treatment of disease. Option D (restorative care) is another
term for tertiary care, making it an alternative correct answer, but in the context of standard
healthcare delivery terminology, tertiary care is the preferred term. This classification is frequently
tested on fundamentals exams.
10. A client is admitted to a hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which level of prevention
does the nurse identify when administering prescribed antibiotics?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Authors: Patricia A. Potter, Anne Griffin Perry,
Patricia A. Stockert, Amy M. Hall
Target Audience: Associate Degree Nursing
(ADN) students in the United States
Licensing Exam Alignment: NCLEX-RN (2026
Test Plan)
Part Coverage: Chapters 1–14 (Unit 1: Nursing
and the Health Care Environment; Unit 2:
Caring Throughout the Life Span)
Questions: 1–70
CHAPTER 1: NURSING TODAY — Questions 1–8
1. A nurse is explaining the concept of "clinical judgment" to a group of nursing students. Which
statement by a student indicates correct understanding of this concept?
A. "Clinical judgment is the same as following a physician's orders precisely."
B. "Clinical judgment is the observed outcome of critical thinking and decision-making in client care."
C. "Clinical judgment is a linear process that ends after the evaluation phase."
D. "Clinical judgment requires memorization of all nursing diagnoses."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clinical judgment is defined by the NCSBN as the observed outcome of critical thinking
and decision-making, an iterative process that uses nursing knowledge to observe and assess
presenting situations, identify a prioritized client concern, and generate the best possible evidence-
based solutions. Option A is incorrect because clinical judgment involves independent nursing
decision-making, not mere order-following. Option C is wrong because clinical judgment is iterative
and cyclical, not linear with a defined end point. Option D is incorrect because clinical judgment
requires application and analysis, not rote memorization. This concept is foundational to the NCLEX-
RN, which explicitly measures clinical judgment processes.
2. A beginning nursing student is entering the clinical setting for the first time. According to
Benner's levels of proficiency, which level does this student represent?
A. Advanced beginner
B. Competent
,C. Novice
D. Proficient
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: According to Patricia Benner's "From Novice to Expert" model, a novice is a beginner with
no experience who relies on rules and guidelines to guide practice. Option A (advanced beginner)
describes a nurse who has had some observational experience and can identify meaningful aspects
of care. Option B (competent) describes a nurse who has been on the job for two to three years and
can anticipate nursing care needs. Option D (proficient) describes a nurse who perceives clinical
situations as a whole and learns from multiple experiences. This distinction is frequently tested
because it represents a foundational nursing theory.
3. Which historical nursing figure is credited with establishing the first nursing school based on
formal educational principles?
A. Clara Barton
B. Dorothea Dix
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Lillian Wald
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Florence Nightingale established the Nightingale Training School for Nurses at St. Thomas'
Hospital in London in 1860, which served as the first formal nursing education program. Option A is
incorrect because Clara Barton founded the American Red Cross. Option B is incorrect because
Dorothea Dix was an advocate for the mentally ill and served as Superintendent of Army Nurses
during the Civil War. Option D is incorrect because Lillian Wald founded public health nursing and the
Henry Street Settlement. Nightingale's contributions to nursing education remain a frequently tested
topic on fundamentals exams.
4. A nurse is discussing the aims of nursing with a client. Which of the following is NOT one of the
four broad aims of nursing practice?
A. To promote health
B. To prevent illness
C. To increase hospital revenue
D. To facilitate coping with disability or death
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The four aims of nursing are: to promote health, to prevent illness, to restore health, and
to facilitate coping with disability or death. Option C (to increase hospital revenue) is not a nursing
aim but rather an administrative or institutional goal. While financial considerations exist in
healthcare, they are not part of nursing's professional aims. Options A, B, and D are all legitimate
aims of nursing practice. Understanding these aims helps nurses articulate their professional role and
prioritize client-centered care.
,5. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery. The client states, "I don't understand
why I need this operation. My doctor didn't explain anything." Which nursing role is the nurse
demonstrating when explaining the procedure and verifying the client's understanding?
A. Advocate
B. Educator
C. Manager
D. Caregiver
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The educator role involves explaining concepts and facts about health, describing the
reason for routine care activities, and evaluating the client's progress in learning. Option A (advocate)
involves protecting the client's rights and ensuring informed consent, but the specific act of teaching
is the educator role. Option C (manager) involves coordinating staff and resources. Option D
(caregiver) involves providing direct physical and emotional care. This scenario tests the ability to
distinguish between overlapping nursing roles.
6. Which nursing organization is responsible for developing and updating the NCLEX-RN
examination used for licensure in the United States?
A. American Nurses Association (ANA)
B. National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
C. Sigma Theta Tau International
D. American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) develops the NCLEX-RN and
NCLEX-PN examinations that candidates must pass to obtain nursing licensure. The NCSBN also
publishes the test plans that guide examination content. Option A (ANA) is the professional
organization for nurses but does not create the licensure exam. Option C (Sigma Theta Tau) is the
international honor society for nursing. Option D (AACN) focuses on nursing education standards and
advocacy. Understanding regulatory bodies is essential for professional practice.
7. A nurse is reviewing the standards of professional nursing practice. The nurse understands that
these standards serve which primary purpose?
A. To establish salary minimums for nursing positions
B. To provide a framework for evaluating nursing care quality
C. To determine which nurses qualify for specialized certification
D. To limit the scope of nursing practice to hospital settings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The standards of professional nursing practice, developed by organizations such as the
American Nurses Association, establish the framework for evaluating the quality of nursing care
delivered to clients. These standards also protect the nurse, the client, and the institution. Option A
is incorrect because salary determination is not the purpose of practice standards. Option C is
incorrect because certification eligibility is determined by specialty organizations, not practice
, standards. Option D is incorrect because nursing practice standards apply across all healthcare
settings, not just hospitals.
8. During a staff meeting, a nurse manager states, "We need to focus on evidence-based practice to
improve patient outcomes." Which statement best describes the purpose of evidence-based
practice in nursing?
A. To replace clinical judgment with research findings
B. To integrate the best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values
C. To ensure that all nurses follow identical protocols in every situation
D. To provide a method for reducing nursing documentation requirements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Evidence-based practice (EBP) is defined as the integration of the best available research
evidence with clinical expertise and patient values and preferences to make optimal clinical
decisions. Option A is incorrect because EBP does not replace clinical judgment; rather, it informs it.
Option C is incorrect because EBP acknowledges that patient uniqueness may require
individualization of care. Option D is unrelated to the purpose of EBP. Understanding EBP is critical
for NCLEX success, as it appears across multiple Client Needs categories.
CHAPTER 2: THE HEALTH CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM — Questions 9–14
9. A nurse is explaining the levels of healthcare delivery to a client. Which level of care is designed
to restore a client to optimal function after an acute illness or injury?
A. Primary care
B. Secondary care
C. Tertiary care
D. Restorative care
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary care, also known as restorative care, focuses on restoring a client to optimal
function after an acute illness or injury. This includes rehabilitation, physical therapy, and specialty
care. Option A (primary care) focuses on health promotion and prevention. Option B (secondary
care) focuses on early detection and treatment of disease. Option D (restorative care) is another
term for tertiary care, making it an alternative correct answer, but in the context of standard
healthcare delivery terminology, tertiary care is the preferred term. This classification is frequently
tested on fundamentals exams.
10. A client is admitted to a hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which level of prevention
does the nurse identify when administering prescribed antibiotics?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
