STUDY AID
A D VA N C E D H E A LT H A S S E S S M E N T · E X A M R E V I E W & S T U D Y B A N K
NU 650 Advanced Health Assessment
Exam 2 Complete Review Bank
Exam Review Edition · Questions, Answers & Rationales
50 Questions Full Rationales Answer Key Included
50 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS R AT I O N A L E S
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Cardiovascular and Peripheral Vascular Assessment
02 Respiratory and Thoracic Assessment
03 Abdominal, Neurologic, and Musculoskeletal Assessment
04 HEENT and Integumentary Assessment
05 Special Populations, Documentation, and Clinical Reasoning
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
This study bank contains 50 original, scenario-based multiple-choice questions focused on the highest-yield topics of the
course.
Every stem, option, and rationale was written specifically for this edition and reviewed for accuracy, clarity, and
one-best-answer construction.
The rationales explain why the keyed answer is correct and why the strongest distractor is wrong, so every item teaches as
well as tests.
This document is an original study aid intended for personal educational review only.
It is not the actual examination of any institution and is not affiliated with or endorsed by any school, program, or testing
body.
75% () Application / Analysis 50 MCQs · PDF
PA S S I N G S C O R E LEVEL F O R M AT
EXAM REVIEW & STUDY BANK · 2026/2027 Page 1
,NU 650 Advanced Health Assessment · Exam 2 Review Bank Edition
SECTION 1 · CARDIOVASCULAR AND PERIPHERAL VASCULAR ASSESSMENT
Q1. A 66-year-old man has a systolic murmur best heard at the right second intercostal space that radiates
to the carotids, with a slow-rising carotid upstroke. Which valvular lesion does this examination
pattern indicate?
A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Tricuspid regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Pulmonic regurgitation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A harsh systolic murmur at the aortic area radiating to the neck with delayed carotid upstroke is the
classic examination signature of aortic stenosis. Mitral regurgitation radiates to the axilla, and right-sided lesions do
not produce carotid radiation.
Q2. A 58-year-old with long-standing hypertension has a low-pitched sound heard just before systole at
the apex, present on the tracing immediately after the atrial kick. Which extra heart sound is
described?
A. S4 gallop from decreased ventricular compliance
B. S3 gallop from volume overload
C. Midsystolic click of mitral valve prolapse
D. Pericardial friction rub
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An S4 occurs in late diastole from atrial contraction against a stiff, hypertrophied ventricle, typical of
long-standing hypertension. An S3 occurs in early diastole with volume overload, and clicks and rubs have entirely
different timing and mechanisms.
EXAM REVIEW & STUDY BANK · 2026/2027 Page 2
, NU 650 Advanced Health Assessment · Exam 2 Review Bank Edition
Q3. While examining a 71-year-old with dyspnea, you estimate jugular venous pulsations 9 cm above the
sternal angle with the head elevated 45 degrees. How should this finding be interpreted?
A. Elevated jugular venous pressure consistent with right-sided heart failure
B. Normal venous pressure requiring no follow-up
C. Elevated pressure consistent only with dehydration
D. A finding specific to left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Venous pressure above roughly 3 to 4 cm above the sternal angle is elevated and reflects raised right atrial
pressure, classically from right-sided heart failure. Dehydration lowers venous pressure, and left ventricular
hypertrophy alone does not define this sign.
Q4. A 62-year-old smoker reports calf tightness after walking two blocks that resolves within minutes of
stopping. His dorsalis pedis pulses are diminished bilaterally and the skin is cool with hairless shins.
Which condition and test best confirm the suspicion?
A. Chronic venous insufficiency confirmed by duplex Doppler of valves
B. Peripheral arterial disease confirmed by ankle-brachial index below 0.9
C. Deep vein thrombosis confirmed immediately by Homan sign
D. Spinal stenosis confirmed by straight-leg raise testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exertional calf pain relieved by rest with diminished distal pulses and trophic skin changes defines
claudication from peripheral arterial disease, quantified by a low ankle-brachial index. Venous disease produces
edema and hyperpigmentation, Homan sign is unreliable for DVT, and neurogenic claudication lacks pulse loss.
Q5. A 48-year-old woman has unilateral left calf swelling, warmth, and tenderness two days after a long
flight. Which assessment approach is most appropriate?
A. Massage the calf firmly to check for clot dissolution
B. Rely on a positive Homan sign to confirm the diagnosis
C. Reassure since unilateral swelling after travel is expected
D. Apply a validated pretest probability score and order duplex ultrasound
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Unilateral swelling with warmth and tenderness after prolonged immobility raises deep vein thrombosis
risk, managed with a validated score such as Wells followed by duplex ultrasound. Massaging a suspected DVT risks
embolization, Homan sign lacks diagnostic accuracy, and the presentation warrants evaluation rather than
reassurance.
EXAM REVIEW & STUDY BANK · 2026/2027 Page 3
A D VA N C E D H E A LT H A S S E S S M E N T · E X A M R E V I E W & S T U D Y B A N K
NU 650 Advanced Health Assessment
Exam 2 Complete Review Bank
Exam Review Edition · Questions, Answers & Rationales
50 Questions Full Rationales Answer Key Included
50 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS R AT I O N A L E S
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Cardiovascular and Peripheral Vascular Assessment
02 Respiratory and Thoracic Assessment
03 Abdominal, Neurologic, and Musculoskeletal Assessment
04 HEENT and Integumentary Assessment
05 Special Populations, Documentation, and Clinical Reasoning
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
This study bank contains 50 original, scenario-based multiple-choice questions focused on the highest-yield topics of the
course.
Every stem, option, and rationale was written specifically for this edition and reviewed for accuracy, clarity, and
one-best-answer construction.
The rationales explain why the keyed answer is correct and why the strongest distractor is wrong, so every item teaches as
well as tests.
This document is an original study aid intended for personal educational review only.
It is not the actual examination of any institution and is not affiliated with or endorsed by any school, program, or testing
body.
75% () Application / Analysis 50 MCQs · PDF
PA S S I N G S C O R E LEVEL F O R M AT
EXAM REVIEW & STUDY BANK · 2026/2027 Page 1
,NU 650 Advanced Health Assessment · Exam 2 Review Bank Edition
SECTION 1 · CARDIOVASCULAR AND PERIPHERAL VASCULAR ASSESSMENT
Q1. A 66-year-old man has a systolic murmur best heard at the right second intercostal space that radiates
to the carotids, with a slow-rising carotid upstroke. Which valvular lesion does this examination
pattern indicate?
A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Tricuspid regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Pulmonic regurgitation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A harsh systolic murmur at the aortic area radiating to the neck with delayed carotid upstroke is the
classic examination signature of aortic stenosis. Mitral regurgitation radiates to the axilla, and right-sided lesions do
not produce carotid radiation.
Q2. A 58-year-old with long-standing hypertension has a low-pitched sound heard just before systole at
the apex, present on the tracing immediately after the atrial kick. Which extra heart sound is
described?
A. S4 gallop from decreased ventricular compliance
B. S3 gallop from volume overload
C. Midsystolic click of mitral valve prolapse
D. Pericardial friction rub
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An S4 occurs in late diastole from atrial contraction against a stiff, hypertrophied ventricle, typical of
long-standing hypertension. An S3 occurs in early diastole with volume overload, and clicks and rubs have entirely
different timing and mechanisms.
EXAM REVIEW & STUDY BANK · 2026/2027 Page 2
, NU 650 Advanced Health Assessment · Exam 2 Review Bank Edition
Q3. While examining a 71-year-old with dyspnea, you estimate jugular venous pulsations 9 cm above the
sternal angle with the head elevated 45 degrees. How should this finding be interpreted?
A. Elevated jugular venous pressure consistent with right-sided heart failure
B. Normal venous pressure requiring no follow-up
C. Elevated pressure consistent only with dehydration
D. A finding specific to left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Venous pressure above roughly 3 to 4 cm above the sternal angle is elevated and reflects raised right atrial
pressure, classically from right-sided heart failure. Dehydration lowers venous pressure, and left ventricular
hypertrophy alone does not define this sign.
Q4. A 62-year-old smoker reports calf tightness after walking two blocks that resolves within minutes of
stopping. His dorsalis pedis pulses are diminished bilaterally and the skin is cool with hairless shins.
Which condition and test best confirm the suspicion?
A. Chronic venous insufficiency confirmed by duplex Doppler of valves
B. Peripheral arterial disease confirmed by ankle-brachial index below 0.9
C. Deep vein thrombosis confirmed immediately by Homan sign
D. Spinal stenosis confirmed by straight-leg raise testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exertional calf pain relieved by rest with diminished distal pulses and trophic skin changes defines
claudication from peripheral arterial disease, quantified by a low ankle-brachial index. Venous disease produces
edema and hyperpigmentation, Homan sign is unreliable for DVT, and neurogenic claudication lacks pulse loss.
Q5. A 48-year-old woman has unilateral left calf swelling, warmth, and tenderness two days after a long
flight. Which assessment approach is most appropriate?
A. Massage the calf firmly to check for clot dissolution
B. Rely on a positive Homan sign to confirm the diagnosis
C. Reassure since unilateral swelling after travel is expected
D. Apply a validated pretest probability score and order duplex ultrasound
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Unilateral swelling with warmth and tenderness after prolonged immobility raises deep vein thrombosis
risk, managed with a validated score such as Wells followed by duplex ultrasound. Massaging a suspected DVT risks
embolization, Homan sign lacks diagnostic accuracy, and the presentation warrants evaluation rather than
reassurance.
EXAM REVIEW & STUDY BANK · 2026/2027 Page 3
