NURS 754
Pharmacology Practice Exam Latest Update
150 Questions and Answers
Gardner-Webb University
1. Which pharmacokinetic process describes movement of a medication from the
site of administration into systemic circulation?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
Answer: C. Absorption
Rationale: Absorption is the movement of a drug from its administration site into
the bloodstream. The route of administration and drug formulation can significantly
affect absorption.
2. Which route of administration provides 100% bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intravenous
Answer: D. Intravenous
Rationale: IV administration delivers the medication directly into systemic
circulation, producing complete bioavailability. Oral medications may undergo
incomplete absorption and first-pass metabolism.
3. What is the primary purpose of drug metabolism?
A. Increase drug absorption
B. Convert drugs into forms that can be eliminated
C. Increase plasma protein binding
D. Prevent renal excretion
Answer: B. Convert drugs into forms that can be eliminated
Rationale: Drug metabolism, primarily occurring in the liver, usually transforms
lipid-soluble compounds into more water-soluble metabolites. These metabolites
can then be eliminated through urine or bile.
4. A medication with a narrow therapeutic index requires which approach?
,A. Infrequent monitoring
B. Routine therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Automatic dose doubling
D. Avoidance of laboratory testing
Answer: B. Routine therapeutic drug monitoring
Rationale: Drugs with narrow therapeutic windows have a small difference between
effective and toxic concentrations. Monitoring helps maintain therapeutic levels
while reducing toxicity.
5. Which organ is primarily responsible for renal drug elimination?
A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
Answer: B. Kidney
Rationale: The kidneys eliminate many medications and metabolites through
glomerular filtration, tubular secretion, and tubular reabsorption. Renal impairment
can therefore increase drug accumulation.
6. Which pharmacodynamic concept describes the maximum effect a drug can
produce?
A. Potency
B. Efficacy
C. Clearance
D. Bioavailability
Answer: B. Efficacy
Rationale: Efficacy refers to the maximum therapeutic effect achievable with a
medication. Potency instead describes the amount of drug required to produce a
particular effect.
7. A patient develops excessive sedation after receiving two medications that both
depress the central nervous system. This is an example of:
A. Antagonism
B. Additive effect
C. Drug tolerance
D. Idiosyncratic metabolism
Answer: B. Additive effect
,Rationale: Two medications with similar pharmacologic effects can produce an
additive or synergistic response. CNS depressants are particularly important
because combined use may cause excessive sedation or respiratory depression.
8. Which medication is a selective beta-1 adrenergic blocker?
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Albuterol
D. Phenylephrine
Answer: B. Metoprolol
Rationale: Metoprolol primarily blocks beta-1 receptors at usual therapeutic doses,
reducing heart rate and myocardial contractility. Propranolol blocks both beta-1 and
beta-2 receptors.
9. Which adverse effect is most concerning after administration of a beta blocker?
A. Bradycardia
B. Mild thirst
C. Increased appetite
D. Flushing
Answer: A. Bradycardia
Rationale: Beta blockers decrease sympathetic stimulation of the heart and can
cause clinically significant bradycardia. Heart rate and blood pressure should be
monitored.
10. Which medication is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used for acute
bronchospasm?
A. Salmeterol
B. Albuterol
C. Montelukast
D. Tiotropium
Answer: B. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol rapidly stimulates beta-2 receptors, producing bronchodilation.
It is commonly used as a rescue medication for acute bronchospasm.
11. Which adverse effect is particularly associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Dry cough
B. Severe constipation
, C. Hypoglycemia
D. Urinary retention
Answer: A. Dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase bradykinin levels, producing a persistent dry
cough. Angioedema is another potentially serious adverse effect.
12. Which medication is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)?
A. Lisinopril
B. Losartan
C. Amlodipine
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: B. Losartan
Rationale: Losartan blocks angiotensin II receptors and reduces vasoconstriction
and aldosterone-mediated sodium retention. ARBs generally do not cause the same
bradykinin-mediated cough seen with ACE inhibitors.
13. Which electrolyte abnormality is associated with ACE inhibitors and ARBs?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: A. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors and ARBs decrease aldosterone activity, reducing
potassium excretion. Patients taking these drugs should have renal function and
serum potassium monitored.
14. Which medication is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker?
A. Verapamil
B. Diltiazem
C. Amlodipine
D. Digoxin
Answer: C. Amlodipine
Rationale: Amlodipine primarily produces peripheral arterial vasodilation and is
commonly used for hypertension. Peripheral edema is a frequent adverse effect.
15. Which calcium channel blocker has significant effects on cardiac conduction and
heart rate?
Pharmacology Practice Exam Latest Update
150 Questions and Answers
Gardner-Webb University
1. Which pharmacokinetic process describes movement of a medication from the
site of administration into systemic circulation?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
Answer: C. Absorption
Rationale: Absorption is the movement of a drug from its administration site into
the bloodstream. The route of administration and drug formulation can significantly
affect absorption.
2. Which route of administration provides 100% bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intravenous
Answer: D. Intravenous
Rationale: IV administration delivers the medication directly into systemic
circulation, producing complete bioavailability. Oral medications may undergo
incomplete absorption and first-pass metabolism.
3. What is the primary purpose of drug metabolism?
A. Increase drug absorption
B. Convert drugs into forms that can be eliminated
C. Increase plasma protein binding
D. Prevent renal excretion
Answer: B. Convert drugs into forms that can be eliminated
Rationale: Drug metabolism, primarily occurring in the liver, usually transforms
lipid-soluble compounds into more water-soluble metabolites. These metabolites
can then be eliminated through urine or bile.
4. A medication with a narrow therapeutic index requires which approach?
,A. Infrequent monitoring
B. Routine therapeutic drug monitoring
C. Automatic dose doubling
D. Avoidance of laboratory testing
Answer: B. Routine therapeutic drug monitoring
Rationale: Drugs with narrow therapeutic windows have a small difference between
effective and toxic concentrations. Monitoring helps maintain therapeutic levels
while reducing toxicity.
5. Which organ is primarily responsible for renal drug elimination?
A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
Answer: B. Kidney
Rationale: The kidneys eliminate many medications and metabolites through
glomerular filtration, tubular secretion, and tubular reabsorption. Renal impairment
can therefore increase drug accumulation.
6. Which pharmacodynamic concept describes the maximum effect a drug can
produce?
A. Potency
B. Efficacy
C. Clearance
D. Bioavailability
Answer: B. Efficacy
Rationale: Efficacy refers to the maximum therapeutic effect achievable with a
medication. Potency instead describes the amount of drug required to produce a
particular effect.
7. A patient develops excessive sedation after receiving two medications that both
depress the central nervous system. This is an example of:
A. Antagonism
B. Additive effect
C. Drug tolerance
D. Idiosyncratic metabolism
Answer: B. Additive effect
,Rationale: Two medications with similar pharmacologic effects can produce an
additive or synergistic response. CNS depressants are particularly important
because combined use may cause excessive sedation or respiratory depression.
8. Which medication is a selective beta-1 adrenergic blocker?
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Albuterol
D. Phenylephrine
Answer: B. Metoprolol
Rationale: Metoprolol primarily blocks beta-1 receptors at usual therapeutic doses,
reducing heart rate and myocardial contractility. Propranolol blocks both beta-1 and
beta-2 receptors.
9. Which adverse effect is most concerning after administration of a beta blocker?
A. Bradycardia
B. Mild thirst
C. Increased appetite
D. Flushing
Answer: A. Bradycardia
Rationale: Beta blockers decrease sympathetic stimulation of the heart and can
cause clinically significant bradycardia. Heart rate and blood pressure should be
monitored.
10. Which medication is a short-acting beta-2 agonist used for acute
bronchospasm?
A. Salmeterol
B. Albuterol
C. Montelukast
D. Tiotropium
Answer: B. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol rapidly stimulates beta-2 receptors, producing bronchodilation.
It is commonly used as a rescue medication for acute bronchospasm.
11. Which adverse effect is particularly associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Dry cough
B. Severe constipation
, C. Hypoglycemia
D. Urinary retention
Answer: A. Dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase bradykinin levels, producing a persistent dry
cough. Angioedema is another potentially serious adverse effect.
12. Which medication is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)?
A. Lisinopril
B. Losartan
C. Amlodipine
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: B. Losartan
Rationale: Losartan blocks angiotensin II receptors and reduces vasoconstriction
and aldosterone-mediated sodium retention. ARBs generally do not cause the same
bradykinin-mediated cough seen with ACE inhibitors.
13. Which electrolyte abnormality is associated with ACE inhibitors and ARBs?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: A. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors and ARBs decrease aldosterone activity, reducing
potassium excretion. Patients taking these drugs should have renal function and
serum potassium monitored.
14. Which medication is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker?
A. Verapamil
B. Diltiazem
C. Amlodipine
D. Digoxin
Answer: C. Amlodipine
Rationale: Amlodipine primarily produces peripheral arterial vasodilation and is
commonly used for hypertension. Peripheral edema is a frequent adverse effect.
15. Which calcium channel blocker has significant effects on cardiac conduction and
heart rate?
