1
NU 518 EXAM 2026/2027 | NURSING |
100 VERIFIED Q&A | DETAILED
RATIONALES | NGN-ALIGNED | PASS
GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION 1: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT – Questions 1-15
Q1: Comprehensive Health History
A nurse practitioner is obtaining a comprehensive health history from a new patient. Which
component is most important to include?
A. Chief complaint and history of present illness
B. Insurance information
C. Patient's occupation
D. Family pet history
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The chief complaint and history of present illness are the most important components of
a comprehensive health history. Insurance information (B) is administrative, not clinical. Occupation
(C) is part of the social history but not the most important. Pet history (D) is relevant only for specific
conditions. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Review of Systems
During a review of systems, the patient reports fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. Which body
system should the nurse practitioner focus on first?
A. Cardiovascular system
B. Respiratory system
C. Endocrine system
D. Musculoskeletal system
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats are constitutional symptoms often associated with
endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism or diabetes. The cardiovascular system (A), respiratory
system (B), and musculoskeletal system (D) may also be affected but are less directly associated with
these symptoms. [100% CORRECT]
Q3: Physical Examination Techniques
,2
Which technique should the nurse practitioner use to assess for tenderness in the right lower
quadrant?
A. Light palpation
B. Deep palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Deep palpation is used to assess for tenderness in the right lower quadrant, which may
indicate appendicitis or other intra-abdominal pathology. Light palpation (A) is used to assess for
superficial tenderness. Percussion (C) is used to assess for organ size and presence of fluid.
Auscultation (D) is used to assess bowel sounds. [100% CORRECT]
Q4: Vital Signs Interpretation
A patient presents with a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg, heart rate of 88 beats/min, respiratory
rate of 18 breaths/min, and temperature of 98.6°F. How should the nurse practitioner interpret
these vital signs?
A. Normal
B. Hypertension
C. Tachycardia
D. Fever
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg indicates hypertension. Heart rate of 88 (A) is normal.
Respiratory rate of 18 (A) is normal. Temperature of 98.6°F (D) is normal. [100% CORRECT]
Q5: Head and Neck Examination
During a head and neck examination, the nurse practitioner notes a fixed, hard, non-tender lymph
node in the supraclavicular area. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Reassure the patient
B. Refer for biopsy
C. Prescribe antibiotics
D. Recommend warm compresses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A fixed, hard, non-tender lymph node in the supraclavicular area is highly suspicious for
malignancy and warrants referral for biopsy. Reassurance (A) is inappropriate. Antibiotics (C) are not
indicated for a non-tender node. Warm compresses (D) are not appropriate for a suspicious node.
[100% CORRECT]
Q6: Cardiovascular Examination
,3
A patient presents with jugular venous distention, crackles in the lungs, and peripheral edema. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Pneumonia
D. Asthma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular venous distention, crackles, and peripheral edema are classic signs of right-sided
heart failure. Left-sided heart failure (A) would present primarily with pulmonary symptoms.
Pneumonia (C) would present with fever and productive cough. Asthma (D) would present with
wheezing and shortness of breath. [100% CORRECT]
Q7: Respiratory Examination
A patient presents with a barrel-shaped chest, prolonged expiration, and decreased breath sounds.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Asthma
B. COPD
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A barrel-shaped chest, prolonged expiration, and decreased breath sounds are
characteristic of COPD. Asthma (A) would present with wheezing. Pneumonia (C) would present with
crackles and fever. Pulmonary embolism (D) would present with sudden onset dyspnea and pleuritic
chest pain. [100% CORRECT]
Q8: Abdominal Examination
During an abdominal examination, the nurse practitioner notes a bruit over the epigastric region.
What is the most likely cause?
A. Normal finding
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A bruit over the epigastric region is most likely caused by an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
A normal finding (A) would not include a bruit. Gastroenteritis (C) would present with diarrhea and
vomiting. Peptic ulcer disease (D) would present with epigastric pain. [100% CORRECT]
Q9: Neurological Examination
, 4
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Migraine headache
B. Tension headache
C. Meningitis
D. Cluster headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden onset of severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia are classic signs of
meningitis. Migraine headache (A) is typically unilateral and throbbing. Tension headache (B) is
bilateral and pressure-like. Cluster headache (D) is unilateral and periorbital. [100% CORRECT]
Q10: Musculoskeletal Examination
A patient presents with swelling, warmth, and limited range of motion in the knee. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Septic arthritis
D. Gout
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Swelling, warmth, and limited range of motion in a single joint are classic signs of septic
arthritis, which is a medical emergency. Osteoarthritis (A) is typically non-inflammatory. Rheumatoid
arthritis (B) is typically polyarticular and symmetric. Gout (D) typically affects the great toe. [100%
CORRECT]
Q11: Skin Examination
A patient presents with a pearly, translucent nodule with telangiectasias on the face. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Actinic keratosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pearly, translucent nodule with telangiectasias is characteristic of basal cell carcinoma.
Squamous cell carcinoma (B) presents as a rough, scaly patch. Melanoma (C) presents as an
asymmetric, irregularly bordered, multi-colored lesion. Actinic keratosis (D) presents as a rough,
scaly patch. [100% CORRECT]
Q12: Eye Examination
NU 518 EXAM 2026/2027 | NURSING |
100 VERIFIED Q&A | DETAILED
RATIONALES | NGN-ALIGNED | PASS
GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION 1: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT – Questions 1-15
Q1: Comprehensive Health History
A nurse practitioner is obtaining a comprehensive health history from a new patient. Which
component is most important to include?
A. Chief complaint and history of present illness
B. Insurance information
C. Patient's occupation
D. Family pet history
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The chief complaint and history of present illness are the most important components of
a comprehensive health history. Insurance information (B) is administrative, not clinical. Occupation
(C) is part of the social history but not the most important. Pet history (D) is relevant only for specific
conditions. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Review of Systems
During a review of systems, the patient reports fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. Which body
system should the nurse practitioner focus on first?
A. Cardiovascular system
B. Respiratory system
C. Endocrine system
D. Musculoskeletal system
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats are constitutional symptoms often associated with
endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism or diabetes. The cardiovascular system (A), respiratory
system (B), and musculoskeletal system (D) may also be affected but are less directly associated with
these symptoms. [100% CORRECT]
Q3: Physical Examination Techniques
,2
Which technique should the nurse practitioner use to assess for tenderness in the right lower
quadrant?
A. Light palpation
B. Deep palpation
C. Percussion
D. Auscultation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Deep palpation is used to assess for tenderness in the right lower quadrant, which may
indicate appendicitis or other intra-abdominal pathology. Light palpation (A) is used to assess for
superficial tenderness. Percussion (C) is used to assess for organ size and presence of fluid.
Auscultation (D) is used to assess bowel sounds. [100% CORRECT]
Q4: Vital Signs Interpretation
A patient presents with a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg, heart rate of 88 beats/min, respiratory
rate of 18 breaths/min, and temperature of 98.6°F. How should the nurse practitioner interpret
these vital signs?
A. Normal
B. Hypertension
C. Tachycardia
D. Fever
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg indicates hypertension. Heart rate of 88 (A) is normal.
Respiratory rate of 18 (A) is normal. Temperature of 98.6°F (D) is normal. [100% CORRECT]
Q5: Head and Neck Examination
During a head and neck examination, the nurse practitioner notes a fixed, hard, non-tender lymph
node in the supraclavicular area. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Reassure the patient
B. Refer for biopsy
C. Prescribe antibiotics
D. Recommend warm compresses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A fixed, hard, non-tender lymph node in the supraclavicular area is highly suspicious for
malignancy and warrants referral for biopsy. Reassurance (A) is inappropriate. Antibiotics (C) are not
indicated for a non-tender node. Warm compresses (D) are not appropriate for a suspicious node.
[100% CORRECT]
Q6: Cardiovascular Examination
,3
A patient presents with jugular venous distention, crackles in the lungs, and peripheral edema. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Pneumonia
D. Asthma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular venous distention, crackles, and peripheral edema are classic signs of right-sided
heart failure. Left-sided heart failure (A) would present primarily with pulmonary symptoms.
Pneumonia (C) would present with fever and productive cough. Asthma (D) would present with
wheezing and shortness of breath. [100% CORRECT]
Q7: Respiratory Examination
A patient presents with a barrel-shaped chest, prolonged expiration, and decreased breath sounds.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Asthma
B. COPD
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A barrel-shaped chest, prolonged expiration, and decreased breath sounds are
characteristic of COPD. Asthma (A) would present with wheezing. Pneumonia (C) would present with
crackles and fever. Pulmonary embolism (D) would present with sudden onset dyspnea and pleuritic
chest pain. [100% CORRECT]
Q8: Abdominal Examination
During an abdominal examination, the nurse practitioner notes a bruit over the epigastric region.
What is the most likely cause?
A. Normal finding
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A bruit over the epigastric region is most likely caused by an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
A normal finding (A) would not include a bruit. Gastroenteritis (C) would present with diarrhea and
vomiting. Peptic ulcer disease (D) would present with epigastric pain. [100% CORRECT]
Q9: Neurological Examination
, 4
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Migraine headache
B. Tension headache
C. Meningitis
D. Cluster headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden onset of severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia are classic signs of
meningitis. Migraine headache (A) is typically unilateral and throbbing. Tension headache (B) is
bilateral and pressure-like. Cluster headache (D) is unilateral and periorbital. [100% CORRECT]
Q10: Musculoskeletal Examination
A patient presents with swelling, warmth, and limited range of motion in the knee. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Septic arthritis
D. Gout
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Swelling, warmth, and limited range of motion in a single joint are classic signs of septic
arthritis, which is a medical emergency. Osteoarthritis (A) is typically non-inflammatory. Rheumatoid
arthritis (B) is typically polyarticular and symmetric. Gout (D) typically affects the great toe. [100%
CORRECT]
Q11: Skin Examination
A patient presents with a pearly, translucent nodule with telangiectasias on the face. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Actinic keratosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pearly, translucent nodule with telangiectasias is characteristic of basal cell carcinoma.
Squamous cell carcinoma (B) presents as a rough, scaly patch. Melanoma (C) presents as an
asymmetric, irregularly bordered, multi-colored lesion. Actinic keratosis (D) presents as a rough,
scaly patch. [100% CORRECT]
Q12: Eye Examination
