NU 641 – Advanced Clinical Pharmacology
Exam 1 QUESTIONS AND DETAILED
SOLUTIONS JUST RELEASED | A+ GRADED |
100 % GUARANTEED PASS
The mechanism of action (MOA) of tenofovir is:
A) Reduces the viral load of HIV in the body through reverse transcriptase
B) Inhibits protease
C) Blocks viral entry
D) Inhibits integrase
Rationale: The MOA of tenofovir is to reduce the viral load of HIV in the body through
reverse transcriptase inhibition. It is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
The major benefit of metformin is:
A) Improves hepatic response to elevated blood glucose and decreases glucose
production
B) Stimulates insulin release from beta cells
C) Increases GI absorption of glucose
D) Causes weight gain
Rationale: The major benefit of metformin is that it improves the hepatic response to
elevated blood glucose and decreases glucose production. It does not stimulate insulin
release.
An adverse drug reaction (ADR) for ocular H1 blockers in treatment of allergic conjunctivitis
is:
A) Blurred vision, eye discomfort, stinging/tearing
B) Hypertension
C) Bradycardia
D) Weight gain
Rationale: ADRs for ocular H1 blockers include blurred vision, eye discomfort,
stinging/tearing, and hypersensitivity. These are local effects.
,Labs prior to metformin include: Select all that apply.
A) Fasting blood glucose
B) HbA1C
C) Pre/postprandial glucose
D) Lipids
Rationale: Labs prior to metformin include fasting blood glucose, HbA1C, pre/postprandial
glucose, and lipids. These help establish a baseline.
ACE inhibitors with CKD are:
A) More effective than other anti-HTN medications in preventing progression of CKD
B) Less effective than other anti-HTN medications
C) Contraindicated in CKD
D) Only used in diabetic patients
Rationale: ACE inhibitors with CKD are more effective than other anti-HTN medications in
preventing progression of CKD in diabetic and non-diabetic patients. They have
renoprotective effects.
What to monitor for androgen therapy includes: Select all that apply.
A) Serum testosterone
B) Lipids
C) LFTs
D) CBC
E) PSA/prostate exam in men
Rationale: Monitoring for androgen therapy includes serum testosterone, lipids, LFTs, CBC,
and PSA/prostate exam in men. These help detect adverse effects.
Use of beta blockers and insulin can:
A) Mask symptoms of hypoglycemia
B) Increase symptoms of hypoglycemia
C) Have no effect on hypoglycemia
D) Cause hyperglycemia
Rationale: Use of beta blockers and insulin can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia. Beta
blockers can hide the tachycardia and tremors that normally signal low blood sugar.
Metformin (Glucophage) does which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Decreases glucose production in liver
B) Decreases GI absorption
C) Improves insulin sensitivity
,D) Does not stimulate insulin release from beta cells
E) Inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces blood viscosity
Rationale: Metformin decreases glucose production in the liver, decreases GI absorption,
improves insulin sensitivity, does not stimulate insulin release from beta cells, and inhibits
platelet aggregation and reduces blood viscosity.
With retinoids initially, acne may:
A) Appear to worsen before it improves over 6-8 weeks
B) Improve immediately
C) Not change
D) Disappear permanently
Rationale: With retinoids initially, acne may appear to worsen before it improves over 6-8
weeks. This is due to the initial irritation and purging effect.
Signs and symptoms of DKA include:
A) Dehydration, ketones, Kussmaul respirations, anorexia, acidosis, acetone breath
B) Polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss
C) Hypertension, bradycardia
D) Weight gain, edema
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of DKA include dehydration, ketones, Kussmaul
respirations, anorexia, acidosis, and acetone breath. It is a medical emergency.
Signs and symptoms of HHS include:
A) Polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, vomiting, dehydration, lethargy, hypovolemia,
progressive decline in level of consciousness
B) Dehydration, ketones, Kussmaul respirations
C) Hypertension, bradycardia
D) Weight gain, edema
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, vomiting,
dehydration, lethargy, hypovolemia, and progressive decline in level of consciousness.
HHS is a hyperglycemic emergency.
If I prescribe an ointment-based ocular anti-infective, the patient should expect:
A) Temporary blurry vision related to administration
B) Permanent vision loss
C) Increased eye pressure
D) No side effects
, Rationale: If an ointment-based ocular anti-infective is prescribed, the patient should
expect temporary blurry vision related to administration. This is a common effect of ocular
ointments.
If I prescribe a fluoroquinolone preparation, a potential side effect is:
A) A crystalline precipitate in the cornea
B) Hypertension
C) Bradycardia
D) Weight gain
Rationale: A potential side effect of a fluoroquinolone preparation is a crystalline
precipitate in the cornea. This is a rare but serious adverse effect.
Ophthalmia neonatorum is also known as:
A) Chlamydia/gonococcal infection of the eye from birth
B) Allergic conjunctivitis
C) Viral conjunctivitis
D) Bacterial conjunctivitis
Rationale: Ophthalmia neonatorum is also known as chlamydia/gonococcal infection of
the eye from birth. It is a neonatal conjunctivitis.
True or False: Chlamydial infection requires treatment with systemic macrolides.
A) True
B) False
Rationale: Chlamydial infection requires treatment with systemic macrolides. Topical
treatment alone is insufficient for chlamydial infections. Therefore, the statement is true.
An ophthalmic disorder caused typically by Staphylococcus aureus is:
A) Hordeolum
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Keratitis
D) Uveitis
Rationale: A hordeolum (stye) is an ophthalmic disorder caused typically by
Staphylococcus aureus. It is an infection of the eyelid glands.
Glaucoma results in:
A) Increased pressure on the optic nerve
B) Decreased pressure on the optic nerve
C) No change in pressure
D) Increased pressure in the ear
Exam 1 QUESTIONS AND DETAILED
SOLUTIONS JUST RELEASED | A+ GRADED |
100 % GUARANTEED PASS
The mechanism of action (MOA) of tenofovir is:
A) Reduces the viral load of HIV in the body through reverse transcriptase
B) Inhibits protease
C) Blocks viral entry
D) Inhibits integrase
Rationale: The MOA of tenofovir is to reduce the viral load of HIV in the body through
reverse transcriptase inhibition. It is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
The major benefit of metformin is:
A) Improves hepatic response to elevated blood glucose and decreases glucose
production
B) Stimulates insulin release from beta cells
C) Increases GI absorption of glucose
D) Causes weight gain
Rationale: The major benefit of metformin is that it improves the hepatic response to
elevated blood glucose and decreases glucose production. It does not stimulate insulin
release.
An adverse drug reaction (ADR) for ocular H1 blockers in treatment of allergic conjunctivitis
is:
A) Blurred vision, eye discomfort, stinging/tearing
B) Hypertension
C) Bradycardia
D) Weight gain
Rationale: ADRs for ocular H1 blockers include blurred vision, eye discomfort,
stinging/tearing, and hypersensitivity. These are local effects.
,Labs prior to metformin include: Select all that apply.
A) Fasting blood glucose
B) HbA1C
C) Pre/postprandial glucose
D) Lipids
Rationale: Labs prior to metformin include fasting blood glucose, HbA1C, pre/postprandial
glucose, and lipids. These help establish a baseline.
ACE inhibitors with CKD are:
A) More effective than other anti-HTN medications in preventing progression of CKD
B) Less effective than other anti-HTN medications
C) Contraindicated in CKD
D) Only used in diabetic patients
Rationale: ACE inhibitors with CKD are more effective than other anti-HTN medications in
preventing progression of CKD in diabetic and non-diabetic patients. They have
renoprotective effects.
What to monitor for androgen therapy includes: Select all that apply.
A) Serum testosterone
B) Lipids
C) LFTs
D) CBC
E) PSA/prostate exam in men
Rationale: Monitoring for androgen therapy includes serum testosterone, lipids, LFTs, CBC,
and PSA/prostate exam in men. These help detect adverse effects.
Use of beta blockers and insulin can:
A) Mask symptoms of hypoglycemia
B) Increase symptoms of hypoglycemia
C) Have no effect on hypoglycemia
D) Cause hyperglycemia
Rationale: Use of beta blockers and insulin can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia. Beta
blockers can hide the tachycardia and tremors that normally signal low blood sugar.
Metformin (Glucophage) does which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Decreases glucose production in liver
B) Decreases GI absorption
C) Improves insulin sensitivity
,D) Does not stimulate insulin release from beta cells
E) Inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces blood viscosity
Rationale: Metformin decreases glucose production in the liver, decreases GI absorption,
improves insulin sensitivity, does not stimulate insulin release from beta cells, and inhibits
platelet aggregation and reduces blood viscosity.
With retinoids initially, acne may:
A) Appear to worsen before it improves over 6-8 weeks
B) Improve immediately
C) Not change
D) Disappear permanently
Rationale: With retinoids initially, acne may appear to worsen before it improves over 6-8
weeks. This is due to the initial irritation and purging effect.
Signs and symptoms of DKA include:
A) Dehydration, ketones, Kussmaul respirations, anorexia, acidosis, acetone breath
B) Polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss
C) Hypertension, bradycardia
D) Weight gain, edema
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of DKA include dehydration, ketones, Kussmaul
respirations, anorexia, acidosis, and acetone breath. It is a medical emergency.
Signs and symptoms of HHS include:
A) Polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, vomiting, dehydration, lethargy, hypovolemia,
progressive decline in level of consciousness
B) Dehydration, ketones, Kussmaul respirations
C) Hypertension, bradycardia
D) Weight gain, edema
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, vomiting,
dehydration, lethargy, hypovolemia, and progressive decline in level of consciousness.
HHS is a hyperglycemic emergency.
If I prescribe an ointment-based ocular anti-infective, the patient should expect:
A) Temporary blurry vision related to administration
B) Permanent vision loss
C) Increased eye pressure
D) No side effects
, Rationale: If an ointment-based ocular anti-infective is prescribed, the patient should
expect temporary blurry vision related to administration. This is a common effect of ocular
ointments.
If I prescribe a fluoroquinolone preparation, a potential side effect is:
A) A crystalline precipitate in the cornea
B) Hypertension
C) Bradycardia
D) Weight gain
Rationale: A potential side effect of a fluoroquinolone preparation is a crystalline
precipitate in the cornea. This is a rare but serious adverse effect.
Ophthalmia neonatorum is also known as:
A) Chlamydia/gonococcal infection of the eye from birth
B) Allergic conjunctivitis
C) Viral conjunctivitis
D) Bacterial conjunctivitis
Rationale: Ophthalmia neonatorum is also known as chlamydia/gonococcal infection of
the eye from birth. It is a neonatal conjunctivitis.
True or False: Chlamydial infection requires treatment with systemic macrolides.
A) True
B) False
Rationale: Chlamydial infection requires treatment with systemic macrolides. Topical
treatment alone is insufficient for chlamydial infections. Therefore, the statement is true.
An ophthalmic disorder caused typically by Staphylococcus aureus is:
A) Hordeolum
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Keratitis
D) Uveitis
Rationale: A hordeolum (stye) is an ophthalmic disorder caused typically by
Staphylococcus aureus. It is an infection of the eyelid glands.
Glaucoma results in:
A) Increased pressure on the optic nerve
B) Decreased pressure on the optic nerve
C) No change in pressure
D) Increased pressure in the ear
