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507
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507 LATEST 2024 - 2025..pdfEdapt questions for final NR 507 LATEST 2024 -
Edapt questions for final NR 507LATEST 2024 - 2025.
1. One of the first pathophysiological responses to the decreased GFR in acute renal failure
is: activation of the RAA system
2. A pre-renal cause of acute renal failure is: hypotension
3. Pre-renal is the most common cause of acute renal failure. True
4. One of the major markers for glomerular filtration rate is creatinine. True
5. Which of the following is true regarding creatinine? Creatinine gets freely filtered
from the glomerulus
6. Which of the following is the best indicator of a good prognosis for recovery from acute
renal failure? Kidney responds to Lasix
7. In post-renal failure, the damage occurs in the collecting duct. True
8. In intrinsic renal failure, sodium and water excretion is increased which leads to a dilute
urine. True
9. One of the issues that requires management of a patient with acute renal failure is
hypokalemia false, hyperkalemia needs to be managed
10. Which of the following can help to prevent a UTI? Increased water consumption
11. A symptom of a lower urinary tract infection includes: urgency
12. Women are at a higher risk for the development of a UTI because of having a shorter
urethra. True
13. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of a urinary tract infection
(UTI)? Pregnancy
14. Which of the following is true regarding a complicated urinary tract infection? Can be
caused by a structural urinary tract disorder
15. Upon examination of a urinalysis, the NP can highly suspect that the causative bacteria
are gram negative because of the presence of: nitrites
16. The urinalysis of a patient with a complicated UTI will show WBCs and casts. True
17. A common organism that causes a urinary tract infection include: staphylococcus
saprophyticus
18. The NP would know that the patient most likely has an uncomplicated UTI because: the
UTI responds well to a short course of antibiotic therapy
19. The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when: the prostatic urethra
becomes obstructed
20. There is a significant risk for men with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) to develop
cellular mutations that lead to prostate cancer. False
21. The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone.true
22. The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the obstruction encountered during
urination. True
23. On a digital rectal exam to assess the quality of the prostate, the NP would be concerned
with which of the following findings? a hard nodule
24. Irritative BPH- nocturia, urinary frequency, urgency that results from bladder
hypertrophy and dysfunction.
25. Obstructive BPH- Incomplete emptying, postvoid dribbling
26. The location of the characteristic hyperplastic nodules of BPH is: periurethral zone
27. Men who have BPH are prone to developing a UTI because: stagnated urine in the
bladder promotes bacterial growth
28. The prostate specific antigen (PSA) helps to liquefy semen post-ejaculation. True
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507
questions
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507 LATEST 2024 - 2025..pdfEdapt questions for final NR 507 LATEST 2024 -
Edapt questions for final NR 507LATEST 2024 - 2025.
29. The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells respond to increases in
dihydrotestosterone that causes them to live longer and multiply. True
30. The action of a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor causes: shrinkage of the prostate gland
31. Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder. False
32. The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis. False, CT scan
33. The most common type of stone is: calcium stone
34. Renal stones are formed when calcium and oxalate in the urine combine. True
35. The type of stone that forms due to a urinary tract infection is: struvite stone
36. Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone. false
37. Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter. True
38. The most common stone found in the patient with gout is: uric acid stone
39. At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a reoccurrence within 10 years of
the prior stone. True
40. Hematuria can be seen with kidney stones because: the stone injured the urinary
structures as it passes through them
41. The levator ani muscle plays a major role in constriction of the external sphincter. True
42. The relay station in the brain that plays a major role in regulating micturition is: pontine
micturition center
43. When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and the internal and external
sphincters constrict. True
44. The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital diaphragm. False, its
located in the bladder
45. Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle of the bladder?
Activation of the beta-2 receptors by the sympathetic nervous system
46. Stress incontinence- leaking of urine with activity
47. Urge incontinence- leakage of urine with sensation of need to urinate
48. Neurogenic incontinence- unimpeded urine leakage
49. Overflow incontinence- leakage of urine is associated with urgency, frequency,
dribbling and hesitancy
50. Involuntary loss of urine caused by dementia or immobility is known as: functional
incontinence
51. The pathophysiology of neurogenic bladder is: lesions alter nervous system impulses
that innervate the detrusor muscle to decrease bladder compliance and decreased
sphincter tone
52. Which of the following is considered be a transient cause of urinary incontinence?
Urinary tract infection
53. A sphincter malfunction that prevents urine from flowing out of the bladder would most
likely result in: overflow incontinence
54. The major cause of stress incontinence in women is hypermobility of the external
sphincter. True
55. Stage III kidney disease is signified when the GFR drops below 60. True
56. Which of the following is a complication of decreased GFR? Anemia
57. The result of vitamin D deficiency results in: hypocalcemia
58. The number one cause of end-stage renal disease is diabetes mellitus and hypertension
combined. True
59. The anemia seen in renal failure is due to the lack or iron. False
!!!#######################Edapt
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questions
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507 LATEST 2024 - 2025..pdfEdapt questions for final NR 507 LATEST 2024 -
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NR 507questions
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2025..pdf!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!################################
507
questions
LATEST for2024
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507 LATEST 2024 - 2025..pdfEdapt questions for final NR 507 LATEST 2024 -
Edapt questions for final NR 507LATEST 2024 - 2025.
1. One of the first pathophysiological responses to the decreased GFR in acute renal failure
is: activation of the RAA system
2. A pre-renal cause of acute renal failure is: hypotension
3. Pre-renal is the most common cause of acute renal failure. True
4. One of the major markers for glomerular filtration rate is creatinine. True
5. Which of the following is true regarding creatinine? Creatinine gets freely filtered
from the glomerulus
6. Which of the following is the best indicator of a good prognosis for recovery from acute
renal failure? Kidney responds to Lasix
7. In post-renal failure, the damage occurs in the collecting duct. True
8. In intrinsic renal failure, sodium and water excretion is increased which leads to a dilute
urine. True
9. One of the issues that requires management of a patient with acute renal failure is
hypokalemia false, hyperkalemia needs to be managed
10. Which of the following can help to prevent a UTI? Increased water consumption
11. A symptom of a lower urinary tract infection includes: urgency
12. Women are at a higher risk for the development of a UTI because of having a shorter
urethra. True
13. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of a urinary tract infection
(UTI)? Pregnancy
14. Which of the following is true regarding a complicated urinary tract infection? Can be
caused by a structural urinary tract disorder
15. Upon examination of a urinalysis, the NP can highly suspect that the causative bacteria
are gram negative because of the presence of: nitrites
16. The urinalysis of a patient with a complicated UTI will show WBCs and casts. True
17. A common organism that causes a urinary tract infection include: staphylococcus
saprophyticus
18. The NP would know that the patient most likely has an uncomplicated UTI because: the
UTI responds well to a short course of antibiotic therapy
19. The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when: the prostatic urethra
becomes obstructed
20. There is a significant risk for men with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) to develop
cellular mutations that lead to prostate cancer. False
21. The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone.true
22. The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the obstruction encountered during
urination. True
23. On a digital rectal exam to assess the quality of the prostate, the NP would be concerned
with which of the following findings? a hard nodule
24. Irritative BPH- nocturia, urinary frequency, urgency that results from bladder
hypertrophy and dysfunction.
25. Obstructive BPH- Incomplete emptying, postvoid dribbling
26. The location of the characteristic hyperplastic nodules of BPH is: periurethral zone
27. Men who have BPH are prone to developing a UTI because: stagnated urine in the
bladder promotes bacterial growth
28. The prostate specific antigen (PSA) helps to liquefy semen post-ejaculation. True
!!!#######################Edapt
NR 507Edapt
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questions
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2025..pdf!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!######################################
final NR 507
questions
LATEST for2024
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507 LATEST 2024 - 2025..pdfEdapt questions for final NR 507 LATEST 2024 -
,for
!!!#######################Edapt
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NR 507questions
LATESTfor
2024
final- NR
2025..pdf!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!################################
507
questions
LATEST for2024
final -NR 2025..pdf!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!###################
507 LATEST 2024 - 2025..pdfEdapt questions for final NR 507 LATEST 2024 -
Edapt questions for final NR 507LATEST 2024 - 2025.
29. The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells respond to increases in
dihydrotestosterone that causes them to live longer and multiply. True
30. The action of a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor causes: shrinkage of the prostate gland
31. Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder. False
32. The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis. False, CT scan
33. The most common type of stone is: calcium stone
34. Renal stones are formed when calcium and oxalate in the urine combine. True
35. The type of stone that forms due to a urinary tract infection is: struvite stone
36. Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone. false
37. Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter. True
38. The most common stone found in the patient with gout is: uric acid stone
39. At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a reoccurrence within 10 years of
the prior stone. True
40. Hematuria can be seen with kidney stones because: the stone injured the urinary
structures as it passes through them
41. The levator ani muscle plays a major role in constriction of the external sphincter. True
42. The relay station in the brain that plays a major role in regulating micturition is: pontine
micturition center
43. When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and the internal and external
sphincters constrict. True
44. The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital diaphragm. False, its
located in the bladder
45. Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle of the bladder?
Activation of the beta-2 receptors by the sympathetic nervous system
46. Stress incontinence- leaking of urine with activity
47. Urge incontinence- leakage of urine with sensation of need to urinate
48. Neurogenic incontinence- unimpeded urine leakage
49. Overflow incontinence- leakage of urine is associated with urgency, frequency,
dribbling and hesitancy
50. Involuntary loss of urine caused by dementia or immobility is known as: functional
incontinence
51. The pathophysiology of neurogenic bladder is: lesions alter nervous system impulses
that innervate the detrusor muscle to decrease bladder compliance and decreased
sphincter tone
52. Which of the following is considered be a transient cause of urinary incontinence?
Urinary tract infection
53. A sphincter malfunction that prevents urine from flowing out of the bladder would most
likely result in: overflow incontinence
54. The major cause of stress incontinence in women is hypermobility of the external
sphincter. True
55. Stage III kidney disease is signified when the GFR drops below 60. True
56. Which of the following is a complication of decreased GFR? Anemia
57. The result of vitamin D deficiency results in: hypocalcemia
58. The number one cause of end-stage renal disease is diabetes mellitus and hypertension
combined. True
59. The anemia seen in renal failure is due to the lack or iron. False
!!!#######################Edapt
NR 507Edapt
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questions
2024 -for
2025..pdf!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!######################################
final NR 507
questions
LATEST for2024
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507 LATEST 2024 - 2025..pdfEdapt questions for final NR 507 LATEST 2024 -
