Which of the following instruments is used for cutting B
bone?
Only an osteotome is designed to actually cut bone. Rasps and planers are
A rasp designed to shave or file the surface of the bone to desired smoothness. Forceps
B osteotome are for grasping.
C planer
D fixator
Which of these presenting symptoms might result in a BNP C
being ordered?
BNP refers to brain natriuretic peptide, a substance whose elevated plasma levels
A pyuria are indicative of congestive heart failure (CHF), of which shortness of breath is a
B hematemesis common presenting symptom.
C shortness of breath
D epistaxis
The heart's typical response to ischemia is: D
A sudden cardiac arrest Although long-term ischemia can lead to infarction and cardiac arrest, the typical
B accumulation of fluid around the heart response to ischemia is chest pain, or angina pectoris.
C distended neck veins
D chest pain
Organisms that cause infections, such as viruses and B
bacteria, are:
From the root patho, meaning disease
A toxins
B pathogens
C venoms
D parasites
The stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone B
death, even for a short time, is:
A grieving patient will typically go through all phases of the process from denial to
A anger acceptance in dealing with grief.
B bargaining
C acceptance
D denial
Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection D
for citizens and some healthcare personnel who administer
voluntary emergency care are known as: This is a fundamental medico-legal principle. The Good Samaritan laws protect not
only patients from zealous bystanders but also protect certain medical personnel in
A First Responder laws situations where they provide off-duty medical intervention in an emergency setting.
B Patient Privacy laws
C Helping Hands legislation
D Good Samaritan laws
When the body's immune system detects an antigen, the D
response is to:
The body perceives any foreign substance to be an antigen, and it is the function of
A decrease the blood glucose the immune system to attempt the production of antibodies in the presence of that
B increase the blood glucose antigen such that the body will be prepared and "stock-piled" in the event of future
C release epinephrine invasions by this same substance.
D produce antibodies
A tort is a: B
A criminal wrong The distracters to this question all imply criminal behavior for which prosecution
B civil wrong would be pursued by legal authorities. A tort is a negligent or intentional civil wrong
C misdemeanor causing injury to someone, for which the injured party can sue the wrongdoer for
D willful, premeditated act damages. This is significant to medical practice because it is through the tort
system that most medical malpractice claims are pursued.
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Which of the following is used to describe the incision A
utilized in a routine cesarean section?
The typical incision for routine C-section, also called a Pfannenstiel incision, is a
A low-transverse transverse incision made low to the abdomen just above the pubic area (a.k.a. the
B transabdominal "bikini cut").
C subcostal
D periumbilical
In ultrasonography, which term would be used to describe C
material that produces sound waves of higher amplitude
than the surrounding structures? Sonographic echoes from a given anatomical structure are said to be "hyperechoic"
when the sound waves return or bounce back at higher amplitude, or density, than
A hyperresonant the surrounding structures.
B hyporesonant
C hyperechoic
D hypoechoic
Which of the following would be prescribed for an asthma B
patient?
Beta agonists relax smooth muscle in the airways. Proton pump inhibitors are
A proton pump inhibitor prescribed for ulcers and GERD to inhibit the production of gastric acid; calcium
B beta agonist channel blockers and ACE inhibitors are both prescribed for high blood pressure.
C calcium channel blocker
D ACE inhibitor
A stereotaxic frame is used in: B
A Arthroscopy A stereotaxic frame is drilled and affixed to the skull to facilitate radiologic mapping
B Neurosurgery of brain regions for the purpose of diagnosis as well as management of abnormal
C Cardiovascular surgery movements through the introduction of electrodes (also referred to as "stereotactic"
D Obstetrics frame).
Debridement consists of: C
A bringing raw wound edges into alignment Debridement of tissue involves cleaning an area, typically a wound or incision, of
B occlusion of open and bleeding vessels dead and dying tissue. The term is often used in conjunction with the word
C removal of infected and devitalized tissue "irrigation," as in "irrigation and debridement" (also known as I&D, but not to be
D reopening of an improperly healed wound confused with "incision and drainage").
When the heart suddenly doubles or triples the number of A
systolic beats per minute, the condition is known as:
Rapid heartbeat, particularly of sudden onset, is described as tachycardia.
A paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
B mitral stenosis
C heart block
D sinus bradycardia
Which word would describe the "vehicle" by which an B
infectious agent is transferred from an infected to a
susceptible host? The organism that hosts the pathogen and then transmits it to a susceptible host is
known as the vector. Mosquitoes, for example, are the vectors for many blood-
A endemic borne diseases.
B vector
C pathogen
D pandemic
The gland that controls functional maturation of B
lymphocytes is the:
Lymphocytes that originate from stem cells in the bone marrow pass through the
A pituitary thymus gland where they mature and develop into activated T-lymphocytes, able to
B thymus respond to antigens elsewhere in the body.
C adrenal
D thyroid
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The term "basketing" is most commonly used in reference A
to treatment of which clinical finding?
Stone basketing is an interventional procedure performed to extract stones, or
A ureteral calculi calculi, from the ureters. This is often done in conjunction with ureteroscopy and
B atherosclerosis ureteral balloon dilatation.
C cholecystitis
D rotator cuff tear
The hard palate is composed of the _________ and A
__________ bones.
The maxillae, or upper jawbone, and the palatine bone together form the upper
A maxillae; palatine palate.
B vomer; palatine
C sphenoid; ethmoid
D maxillae; mandible
Which of the following is not an important role of the liver? C
A phagocytosis All of these except excretion of urea, which is the role of the kidneys, are vital
B glycogen storage functions of the liver.
C excretion of urea
D production of blood proteins
Place the following in their correct order from outside to A
inside: 1. lungs 2. pleural cavity 3. visceral pleura 4.
parietal pleura Similar to the structures encasing the heart, the lungs are protected by a visceral
pleura which is adhered to the external surface of the lungs. The next layer is the
A 4, 2, 3, 1 parietal pleura, and the pleural cavity is the space that exists between these two
B 3, 2, 4, 1 layers.
C 4, 3, 2, 1
D 1, 2, 3, 4
The urinary drug Ditropan would be prescribed to treat: D
A pain and burning on urination While the other conditions may also be present in a patient with frequency and
B pyuria urgency, Ditropan [oxybutynin chloride] is an anticholinergic/antispasmodic
C hematuria prescribed to relieve the symptoms associated with urinary urgency and frequency,
D urgency and frequency particularly in patients with bladder-control problems.
The "L" in the abbreviation LEEP stands for: B
A laser LEEP, or loop electrosurgical excision procedure, is used to treat precancerous
B loop lesions of the cervix, whereby radio waves are conducted through a wire loop to
C lysis excise cervical tissue.
D local
The technique for administering drugs that follow the C
body's biorhythms is called:
Chronotherapy [chronos - time] has been proven very effective, particularly in the
A biotherapy treatment of asthma, arthritis and cancer, where coordination of drug administration
B aurotherapy to the body's natural biorhythms has proven more effective than traditional
C chronotherapy administration. The other therapies [bio - treatment with antibodies, auro - treatment
D balneotherapy by injection of gold salts, & balneo - treatment with baths] do not deal with body
rhythms.
A woman who is para 2-1-0-3 has been pregnant at least: B
A one time A value in the first three indicators of a TPAL designation will indicate the minimum
B two times number a times a patient has been pregnant, given the possibility of a
C three times twins/multiples pregnancy. When gravida information is unknown, it can be
D four times assumed that a para 2-1-0-3 female has been pregnant at least twice (since a twin
full-term delivery and a single premature delivery are a reasonable possibility).
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The term half-life refers to the: C
A contraindications of a drug. A drug's half-life is the time required for the level of that drug in serum to decrease
B duration of efficacy for a drug before it expires and must from 100% to 50%; thus, it is relates to how long the drug remains effective in the
be discarded. blood stream. A drug with a shorter half life needs to be administered more often or
C duration of efficacy for a drug within the blood stream manufactured in an extended- or time-released form.
before it must be readministered.
D decreased susceptibility to the effects of a drug in a
patient who has developed a tolerance for it.
CIN, or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, is expressed in B
grades from 1 to:
Used to delineate preinvasive cancerous lesions of the cervix, the designation
A2 measures the degree of dysplasia from 1 (early) to 3 (carcinoma in situ).
B3
C6
D 10
Which of the following sentences contains the correct D
transcription of a compound modifier?
An adverb coupled with a participle only takes a hyphen when it precedes the noun
A The work was back breaking. it is modifying. In this sentence, the word quick functions merely as an adverb that
B She was a lovely looking female. interrupts and modifyies the verb phrase was thinking. Noun/participle modifiers
C The child was well-developed and well-nourished. (back-breaking) require a hyphen whether preceding or following their nouns.
D The new nurse was quick thinking in a crisis. Compound modifiers containing an adjective ending in -ly (lovely-looking) always
require a hyphen. Again, adverb/participle modifiers (well-developed, well-
nourished) only take a hyphen when they precede the noun they modify, not when
they follow it.
The great saphenous vein runs from: B
A shoulder to elbow The great saphenous vein, the longest in the body, begins at the medial end of the
B hip to dorsal foot dorsal venous arch of the foot. It empties into the femoral vein in the groin. The
C knee to dorsal foot cephalic veins run shoulder to elbow, the small saphenous veins from posterior
D neck to shoulder knee to dorsal foot, and the subclavian from neck to shoulder.
Which of the following is an example of an active (ATP- D
requiring) mode of transporting substances across the
plasma membrane of a cell? Osmosis, diffusion, and filtration are all passive processes, whereby substances are
moved across the plasma membrane via their own kinetic energy, their compatibility
A osmosis with the permeable characteristics of the plasma wall, or the natural movement from
B diffusion areas of high concentration to low concentration. Only phagocytosis, which requires
C filtration the pseudopods of the cell to expend energy engulfing the particles and bringing
D phagocytosis them into the cell, is considered an active transport process.
A short-acting barbiturate given intravenously for the C
induction of general anesthesia is:
All of the drugs listed are anesthetics. Marcaine is an agent used for local, nerve
A Marcaine block or spinal anesthesia. Nitrous oxide, Brevital and Versed are all used for the
B nitrous oxide induction of general anesthesia, but only Brevital and Versed are given IV, and of
C Brevital these, only Brevital is a barbiturate.
D Versed
It is acceptable to use a hyphen between the limits of a C
range if:
See page 347 of the AAMT Book of Style, 2nd edition, for the five conditions that
A The phrase "from...to" is used. must be met in order to use a hyphen between the limits of a range.
B Both values are negative.
C Neither value is accompanied by a symbol.
D Both values contain decimals and/or commas.
Wernicke's area of the cerebrum is also known as the: A
A auditory association area. There are six association areas of the cerebrum that consist of association tracts.
B somatosensory association area. The auditory association area, or Wernicke's area, determines if a sound is speech,
C gnostic area. music or noise. It also interprets the meaning of speech by translating words into
D visual association area. thoughts.
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