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AHDI CMT Prep Challenge Quiz | Medical Transcription Exam Questions & Answers 2026–2027

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Prepare with the AHDI CMT Prep Challenge Quiz covering medical transcription and healthcare documentation concepts such as medical terminology, anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, disease processes, surgical terminology, clinical medicine, documentation standards, grammar, and transcription accuracy. This 2026–2027 study resource is suitable for reviewing legacy Certified Medical Transcriptionist (CMT) examination material and related healthcare documentation competencies. AHDI currently lists CMT as a credential but states that the CMT exam is no longer available to new candidates and has been replaced by the Certified Healthcare Documentation Specialist (CHDS) credential.

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AHDI CMT Prep Challenge Quiz_Exam

Which of the following instruments is used for cutting B
bone?
Only an osteotome is designed to actually cut bone. Rasps and planers are
A rasp designed to shave or file the surface of the bone to desired smoothness. Forceps
B osteotome are for grasping.
C planer
D fixator


Which of these presenting symptoms might result in a BNP C
being ordered?
BNP refers to brain natriuretic peptide, a substance whose elevated plasma levels
A pyuria are indicative of congestive heart failure (CHF), of which shortness of breath is a
B hematemesis common presenting symptom.
C shortness of breath
D epistaxis


The heart's typical response to ischemia is: D

A sudden cardiac arrest Although long-term ischemia can lead to infarction and cardiac arrest, the typical
B accumulation of fluid around the heart response to ischemia is chest pain, or angina pectoris.
C distended neck veins
D chest pain


Organisms that cause infections, such as viruses and B
bacteria, are:
From the root patho, meaning disease
A toxins
B pathogens
C venoms
D parasites


The stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone B
death, even for a short time, is:
A grieving patient will typically go through all phases of the process from denial to
A anger acceptance in dealing with grief.
B bargaining
C acceptance
D denial


Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection D
for citizens and some healthcare personnel who administer
voluntary emergency care are known as: This is a fundamental medico-legal principle. The Good Samaritan laws protect not
only patients from zealous bystanders but also protect certain medical personnel in
A First Responder laws situations where they provide off-duty medical intervention in an emergency setting.
B Patient Privacy laws
C Helping Hands legislation
D Good Samaritan laws


When the body's immune system detects an antigen, the D
response is to:
The body perceives any foreign substance to be an antigen, and it is the function of
A decrease the blood glucose the immune system to attempt the production of antibodies in the presence of that
B increase the blood glucose antigen such that the body will be prepared and "stock-piled" in the event of future
C release epinephrine invasions by this same substance.
D produce antibodies


A tort is a: B

A criminal wrong The distracters to this question all imply criminal behavior for which prosecution
B civil wrong would be pursued by legal authorities. A tort is a negligent or intentional civil wrong
C misdemeanor causing injury to someone, for which the injured party can sue the wrongdoer for
D willful, premeditated act damages. This is significant to medical practice because it is through the tort
system that most medical malpractice claims are pursued.




Stuvia 2026-2027

, AHDI CMT Prep Challenge Quiz_Exam

Which of the following is used to describe the incision A
utilized in a routine cesarean section?
The typical incision for routine C-section, also called a Pfannenstiel incision, is a
A low-transverse transverse incision made low to the abdomen just above the pubic area (a.k.a. the
B transabdominal "bikini cut").
C subcostal
D periumbilical


In ultrasonography, which term would be used to describe C
material that produces sound waves of higher amplitude
than the surrounding structures? Sonographic echoes from a given anatomical structure are said to be "hyperechoic"
when the sound waves return or bounce back at higher amplitude, or density, than
A hyperresonant the surrounding structures.
B hyporesonant
C hyperechoic
D hypoechoic


Which of the following would be prescribed for an asthma B
patient?
Beta agonists relax smooth muscle in the airways. Proton pump inhibitors are
A proton pump inhibitor prescribed for ulcers and GERD to inhibit the production of gastric acid; calcium
B beta agonist channel blockers and ACE inhibitors are both prescribed for high blood pressure.
C calcium channel blocker
D ACE inhibitor


A stereotaxic frame is used in: B

A Arthroscopy A stereotaxic frame is drilled and affixed to the skull to facilitate radiologic mapping
B Neurosurgery of brain regions for the purpose of diagnosis as well as management of abnormal
C Cardiovascular surgery movements through the introduction of electrodes (also referred to as "stereotactic"
D Obstetrics frame).


Debridement consists of: C

A bringing raw wound edges into alignment Debridement of tissue involves cleaning an area, typically a wound or incision, of
B occlusion of open and bleeding vessels dead and dying tissue. The term is often used in conjunction with the word
C removal of infected and devitalized tissue "irrigation," as in "irrigation and debridement" (also known as I&D, but not to be
D reopening of an improperly healed wound confused with "incision and drainage").


When the heart suddenly doubles or triples the number of A
systolic beats per minute, the condition is known as:
Rapid heartbeat, particularly of sudden onset, is described as tachycardia.
A paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
B mitral stenosis
C heart block
D sinus bradycardia


Which word would describe the "vehicle" by which an B
infectious agent is transferred from an infected to a
susceptible host? The organism that hosts the pathogen and then transmits it to a susceptible host is
known as the vector. Mosquitoes, for example, are the vectors for many blood-
A endemic borne diseases.
B vector
C pathogen
D pandemic


The gland that controls functional maturation of B
lymphocytes is the:
Lymphocytes that originate from stem cells in the bone marrow pass through the
A pituitary thymus gland where they mature and develop into activated T-lymphocytes, able to
B thymus respond to antigens elsewhere in the body.
C adrenal
D thyroid




Stuvia 2026-2027

, AHDI CMT Prep Challenge Quiz_Exam

The term "basketing" is most commonly used in reference A
to treatment of which clinical finding?
Stone basketing is an interventional procedure performed to extract stones, or
A ureteral calculi calculi, from the ureters. This is often done in conjunction with ureteroscopy and
B atherosclerosis ureteral balloon dilatation.
C cholecystitis
D rotator cuff tear


The hard palate is composed of the _________ and A
__________ bones.
The maxillae, or upper jawbone, and the palatine bone together form the upper
A maxillae; palatine palate.
B vomer; palatine
C sphenoid; ethmoid
D maxillae; mandible


Which of the following is not an important role of the liver? C

A phagocytosis All of these except excretion of urea, which is the role of the kidneys, are vital
B glycogen storage functions of the liver.
C excretion of urea
D production of blood proteins


Place the following in their correct order from outside to A
inside: 1. lungs 2. pleural cavity 3. visceral pleura 4.
parietal pleura Similar to the structures encasing the heart, the lungs are protected by a visceral
pleura which is adhered to the external surface of the lungs. The next layer is the
A 4, 2, 3, 1 parietal pleura, and the pleural cavity is the space that exists between these two
B 3, 2, 4, 1 layers.
C 4, 3, 2, 1
D 1, 2, 3, 4


The urinary drug Ditropan would be prescribed to treat: D

A pain and burning on urination While the other conditions may also be present in a patient with frequency and
B pyuria urgency, Ditropan [oxybutynin chloride] is an anticholinergic/antispasmodic
C hematuria prescribed to relieve the symptoms associated with urinary urgency and frequency,
D urgency and frequency particularly in patients with bladder-control problems.


The "L" in the abbreviation LEEP stands for: B

A laser LEEP, or loop electrosurgical excision procedure, is used to treat precancerous
B loop lesions of the cervix, whereby radio waves are conducted through a wire loop to
C lysis excise cervical tissue.
D local


The technique for administering drugs that follow the C
body's biorhythms is called:
Chronotherapy [chronos - time] has been proven very effective, particularly in the
A biotherapy treatment of asthma, arthritis and cancer, where coordination of drug administration
B aurotherapy to the body's natural biorhythms has proven more effective than traditional
C chronotherapy administration. The other therapies [bio - treatment with antibodies, auro - treatment
D balneotherapy by injection of gold salts, & balneo - treatment with baths] do not deal with body
rhythms.


A woman who is para 2-1-0-3 has been pregnant at least: B

A one time A value in the first three indicators of a TPAL designation will indicate the minimum
B two times number a times a patient has been pregnant, given the possibility of a
C three times twins/multiples pregnancy. When gravida information is unknown, it can be
D four times assumed that a para 2-1-0-3 female has been pregnant at least twice (since a twin
full-term delivery and a single premature delivery are a reasonable possibility).




Stuvia 2026-2027

, AHDI CMT Prep Challenge Quiz_Exam

The term half-life refers to the: C

A contraindications of a drug. A drug's half-life is the time required for the level of that drug in serum to decrease
B duration of efficacy for a drug before it expires and must from 100% to 50%; thus, it is relates to how long the drug remains effective in the
be discarded. blood stream. A drug with a shorter half life needs to be administered more often or
C duration of efficacy for a drug within the blood stream manufactured in an extended- or time-released form.
before it must be readministered.
D decreased susceptibility to the effects of a drug in a
patient who has developed a tolerance for it.


CIN, or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, is expressed in B
grades from 1 to:
Used to delineate preinvasive cancerous lesions of the cervix, the designation
A2 measures the degree of dysplasia from 1 (early) to 3 (carcinoma in situ).
B3
C6
D 10


Which of the following sentences contains the correct D
transcription of a compound modifier?
An adverb coupled with a participle only takes a hyphen when it precedes the noun
A The work was back breaking. it is modifying. In this sentence, the word quick functions merely as an adverb that
B She was a lovely looking female. interrupts and modifyies the verb phrase was thinking. Noun/participle modifiers
C The child was well-developed and well-nourished. (back-breaking) require a hyphen whether preceding or following their nouns.
D The new nurse was quick thinking in a crisis. Compound modifiers containing an adjective ending in -ly (lovely-looking) always
require a hyphen. Again, adverb/participle modifiers (well-developed, well-
nourished) only take a hyphen when they precede the noun they modify, not when
they follow it.


The great saphenous vein runs from: B

A shoulder to elbow The great saphenous vein, the longest in the body, begins at the medial end of the
B hip to dorsal foot dorsal venous arch of the foot. It empties into the femoral vein in the groin. The
C knee to dorsal foot cephalic veins run shoulder to elbow, the small saphenous veins from posterior
D neck to shoulder knee to dorsal foot, and the subclavian from neck to shoulder.


Which of the following is an example of an active (ATP- D
requiring) mode of transporting substances across the
plasma membrane of a cell? Osmosis, diffusion, and filtration are all passive processes, whereby substances are
moved across the plasma membrane via their own kinetic energy, their compatibility
A osmosis with the permeable characteristics of the plasma wall, or the natural movement from
B diffusion areas of high concentration to low concentration. Only phagocytosis, which requires
C filtration the pseudopods of the cell to expend energy engulfing the particles and bringing
D phagocytosis them into the cell, is considered an active transport process.


A short-acting barbiturate given intravenously for the C
induction of general anesthesia is:
All of the drugs listed are anesthetics. Marcaine is an agent used for local, nerve
A Marcaine block or spinal anesthesia. Nitrous oxide, Brevital and Versed are all used for the
B nitrous oxide induction of general anesthesia, but only Brevital and Versed are given IV, and of
C Brevital these, only Brevital is a barbiturate.
D Versed


It is acceptable to use a hyphen between the limits of a C
range if:
See page 347 of the AAMT Book of Style, 2nd edition, for the five conditions that
A The phrase "from...to" is used. must be met in order to use a hyphen between the limits of a range.
B Both values are negative.
C Neither value is accompanied by a symbol.
D Both values contain decimals and/or commas.


Wernicke's area of the cerebrum is also known as the: A

A auditory association area. There are six association areas of the cerebrum that consist of association tracts.
B somatosensory association area. The auditory association area, or Wernicke's area, determines if a sound is speech,
C gnostic area. music or noise. It also interprets the meaning of speech by translating words into
D visual association area. thoughts.




Stuvia 2026-2027

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