NR 546 MIDTERM EXAM WEEK 2:
ADVANCED PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
(LATEST ), (A+ GUARANTEE).
1. An inverse agonist is best described by which of the following actions at a neurotransmitter
receptor?
A. It blocks the action of an agonist but has no intrinsic activity.
B. It binds to the receptor and produces the same effect as the endogenous
neurotransmitter.
C. It reduces the constitutive activity of the receptor, closing the ion channel beyond its
resting state.
D. It increases the frequency of channel opening without binding to the primary site.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Unlike antagonists which simply block activity, inverse agonists
actively reduce the constitutive (baseline) activity of a receptor, moving it to an inactive
state.
,2. A patient is prescribed Clozapine. The provider notes the patient is a heavy cigarette
smoker. What is the pharmacokinetic concern regarding the CYP1A2 enzyme?
A. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons in smoke induce CYP1A2, potentially lowering
clozapine plasma levels.
B. Smoking inhibits CYP1A2, leading to toxic levels of clozapine.
C. Nicotine competes for the same binding site on CYP1A2, leading to unpredictable levels.
D. Smoking has no effect on CYP1A2 metabolism.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Smoking induces the CYP1A2 enzyme, which increases the
metabolism of clozapine. If a patient stops smoking, clozapine levels can rise significantly,
leading to toxicity.
3. In the presence of a full agonist, a partial agonist acts as a(n):
A. Synergist
B. Net antagonist
C. Irreversible agonist
D. Non-competitive modulator
Answer: B
, Conceptual Explanation: Because a partial agonist has lower intrinsic activity than a full
agonist, it competes for the same receptors and reduces the overall response, effectively
acting as an antagonist.
4. Which dopamine pathway is primarily associated with the positive symptoms of
schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions?
A. Nigrostriatal pathway
B. Mesolimbic pathway
C. Mesocortical pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Hyperactivity of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway is
theorized to cause the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
5. Blockade of dopamine D2 receptors in the tuberoinfundibular pathway leads to which
clinical side effect?
A. Hyperprolactinemia
B. Weight gain
C. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
D. Sedation
Answer: A
ADVANCED PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
(LATEST ), (A+ GUARANTEE).
1. An inverse agonist is best described by which of the following actions at a neurotransmitter
receptor?
A. It blocks the action of an agonist but has no intrinsic activity.
B. It binds to the receptor and produces the same effect as the endogenous
neurotransmitter.
C. It reduces the constitutive activity of the receptor, closing the ion channel beyond its
resting state.
D. It increases the frequency of channel opening without binding to the primary site.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Unlike antagonists which simply block activity, inverse agonists
actively reduce the constitutive (baseline) activity of a receptor, moving it to an inactive
state.
,2. A patient is prescribed Clozapine. The provider notes the patient is a heavy cigarette
smoker. What is the pharmacokinetic concern regarding the CYP1A2 enzyme?
A. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons in smoke induce CYP1A2, potentially lowering
clozapine plasma levels.
B. Smoking inhibits CYP1A2, leading to toxic levels of clozapine.
C. Nicotine competes for the same binding site on CYP1A2, leading to unpredictable levels.
D. Smoking has no effect on CYP1A2 metabolism.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Smoking induces the CYP1A2 enzyme, which increases the
metabolism of clozapine. If a patient stops smoking, clozapine levels can rise significantly,
leading to toxicity.
3. In the presence of a full agonist, a partial agonist acts as a(n):
A. Synergist
B. Net antagonist
C. Irreversible agonist
D. Non-competitive modulator
Answer: B
, Conceptual Explanation: Because a partial agonist has lower intrinsic activity than a full
agonist, it competes for the same receptors and reduces the overall response, effectively
acting as an antagonist.
4. Which dopamine pathway is primarily associated with the positive symptoms of
schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions?
A. Nigrostriatal pathway
B. Mesolimbic pathway
C. Mesocortical pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Hyperactivity of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway is
theorized to cause the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
5. Blockade of dopamine D2 receptors in the tuberoinfundibular pathway leads to which
clinical side effect?
A. Hyperprolactinemia
B. Weight gain
C. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
D. Sedation
Answer: A
