,
,Question 1
A PMHNP is treating a patient with schizophrenia who has poor
medication adherence. Which medication property would be most
helpful in improving adherence?
A) Short half-life
B) High muscarinic receptor affinity
C) Long half-life
D) Strong CYP1A2 induction
Correct ,,,,,,,,,CORRECT 100 correct detailed answers correct,,,,: C) Long
half-life
Rationale: A long half-life allows for less frequent dosing (e.g., once
daily or depot formulations), which improves adherence. Short halflives
require multiple daily doses. Muscarinic affinity relates to side effects,
not adherence.
Question 2
A patient on fluoxetine for 8 weeks reports improved mood but
complains of insomnia. The PMHNP decides to add a second medication
at bedtime. Which is the most appropriate?
, A) Bupropion
B) Mirtazapine
C) Venlafaxine
D) Paroxetine
Correct ,,,,,,,,,CORRECT 100 correct detailed answers correct,,,,: B)
Mirtazapine
Rationale: Mirtazapine has sedating properties due to potent H1
receptor antagonism and is often added at bedtime to SSRI-induced
insomnia. Bupropion is activating. Venlafaxine and paroxetine are not
sedating.
Question 3
Which statement best describes an inverse agonist?
A) It produces the same maximal response as an endogenous agonist.
B) It binds to a receptor but produces no response.
C) It produces a response opposite to that of an agonist.
D) It binds to an allosteric site and enhances agonist effects.
Correct ,,,,,,,,,CORRECT 100 correct detailed answers correct,,,,: C) It
produces a response opposite to that of an agonist.
Rationale: An inverse agonist stabilizes a receptor in an
inactive
conformation, reducing constitutive (baseline) activity below normal
,Question 1
A PMHNP is treating a patient with schizophrenia who has poor
medication adherence. Which medication property would be most
helpful in improving adherence?
A) Short half-life
B) High muscarinic receptor affinity
C) Long half-life
D) Strong CYP1A2 induction
Correct ,,,,,,,,,CORRECT 100 correct detailed answers correct,,,,: C) Long
half-life
Rationale: A long half-life allows for less frequent dosing (e.g., once
daily or depot formulations), which improves adherence. Short halflives
require multiple daily doses. Muscarinic affinity relates to side effects,
not adherence.
Question 2
A patient on fluoxetine for 8 weeks reports improved mood but
complains of insomnia. The PMHNP decides to add a second medication
at bedtime. Which is the most appropriate?
, A) Bupropion
B) Mirtazapine
C) Venlafaxine
D) Paroxetine
Correct ,,,,,,,,,CORRECT 100 correct detailed answers correct,,,,: B)
Mirtazapine
Rationale: Mirtazapine has sedating properties due to potent H1
receptor antagonism and is often added at bedtime to SSRI-induced
insomnia. Bupropion is activating. Venlafaxine and paroxetine are not
sedating.
Question 3
Which statement best describes an inverse agonist?
A) It produces the same maximal response as an endogenous agonist.
B) It binds to a receptor but produces no response.
C) It produces a response opposite to that of an agonist.
D) It binds to an allosteric site and enhances agonist effects.
Correct ,,,,,,,,,CORRECT 100 correct detailed answers correct,,,,: C) It
produces a response opposite to that of an agonist.
Rationale: An inverse agonist stabilizes a receptor in an
inactive
conformation, reducing constitutive (baseline) activity below normal