NR606 Week 2 Exam V1 | NR606 Diagnosis & Management in
Psychiatric-Mental Health II Practicum | Q&A with Rationale (NR606
Week 2 Exam) | Chamberlain University
1. When assessing a 10-year-old child for Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD),
how long must symptoms have persisted to meet DSM-5 criteria?
A. At least 3 months
B. At least 12 months
C. At least 6 months
D. Symptoms must be present from birth
E. Symptoms must be present from birth
Answer: C
Explanation: The DSM-5 specifies that symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity-
impulsivity must persist for at least 6 months. These symptoms must be to a degree that is
inconsistent with developmental level and that negatively impacts social and academic
activities. Clinicians must also ensure symptoms were present before age 12.
2. Which of the following is a primary characteristic that distinguishes Disruptive Mood
Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) from Bipolar Disorder in children?
A. The chronic and persistent nature of irritability
B. The frequency of temper outbursts
C. The presence of grandiosity and decreased need for sleep
D. The response to stimulant medications
Answer: A
Explanation: DMDD is characterized by chronic, persistent irritability and frequent temper
outbursts rather than episodic mood changes. In contrast, Bipolar Disorder in children
typically involves discrete episodes of mania or hypomania, including grandiosity. DMDD
was introduced to the DSM-5 to prevent the overdiagnosis of Bipolar Disorder in children
who present with non-episodic irritability.
3. A 14-year-old female presents with severe restriction of energy intake relative to
requirements, an intense fear of gaining weight, and a distorted body image. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Bulimia Nervosa
B. Anorexia Nervosa
,C. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)
D. Binge Eating Disorder
Answer: B
Explanation: Anorexia Nervosa is defined by the restriction of energy intake leading to
significantly low body weight and a disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is
experienced. Unlike Bulimia, it does not require compensatory behaviors like purging if the
weight is significantly low. ARFID differs because it does not involve distress about body
shape or weight.
4. Which medication is FDA-approved for the treatment of irritability associated with Autism
Spectrum Disorder (ASD) in children aged 5 to 16?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Risperidone
C. Methylphenidate
D. Lithium
Answer: B
Explanation: Risperidone is one of the few medications FDA-approved for treating
irritability, including aggression and self-injury, in children with ASD. Aripiprazole is the
other atypical antipsychotic approved for this specific indication. Clinicians must monitor
for metabolic side effects and extrapyramidal symptoms when prescribing these agents.
5. A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for frequently losing his temper, arguing with
teachers, and actively defying requests. These behaviors have lasted 8 months. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Conduct Disorder
B. Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
C. Intermittent Explosive Disorder
D. Social Anxiety Disorder
Answer: B
Explanation: Oppositional Defiant Disorder involves a pattern of angry/irritable mood,
argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least 6 months. It is
distinguished from Conduct Disorder by the absence of serious violations of the rights of
others or age-appropriate societal norms. The child’s behavior in this scenario aligns
closely with the ODD diagnostic criteria regarding authority figures.
, 6. Which symptom is more commonly associated with major depressive disorder (MDD) in
children and adolescents than in adults?
A. Insomnia
B. Irritable mood
C. Psychomotor retardation
D. Hypersomnia
Answer: B
Explanation: In children and adolescents, an irritable mood may be substituted for a
depressed mood as a core criterion for MDD. Adults more frequently report feelings of
sadness or hopelessness, while youth may appear ‘cranky’ or act out. Recognizing
irritability as a symptom of depression is crucial for accurate diagnosis in pediatric
populations.
7. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for a child diagnosed with severe
Separation Anxiety Disorder that has not responded to therapy?
A. Alprazolam
B. Buspirone
C. Clonidine
D. Fluoxetine
Answer: D
Explanation: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), such as Fluoxetine, are
considered the first-line pharmacological treatment for pediatric anxiety disorders,
including Separation Anxiety. Benzodiazepines like Alprazolam are generally avoided due
to the risk of disinhibition and dependency. Pharmacotherapy is most effective when
combined with Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT).
8. A 9-year-old girl exhibits a persistent pattern of inhibited, emotionally withdrawn behavior
toward adult caregivers and rarely seeks comfort when distressed. She has a history of social
neglect. What is the diagnosis?
A. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder
B. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
C. Separation Anxiety Disorder
D. Reactive Attachment Disorder (RAD)
Answer: D
Psychiatric-Mental Health II Practicum | Q&A with Rationale (NR606
Week 2 Exam) | Chamberlain University
1. When assessing a 10-year-old child for Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD),
how long must symptoms have persisted to meet DSM-5 criteria?
A. At least 3 months
B. At least 12 months
C. At least 6 months
D. Symptoms must be present from birth
E. Symptoms must be present from birth
Answer: C
Explanation: The DSM-5 specifies that symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity-
impulsivity must persist for at least 6 months. These symptoms must be to a degree that is
inconsistent with developmental level and that negatively impacts social and academic
activities. Clinicians must also ensure symptoms were present before age 12.
2. Which of the following is a primary characteristic that distinguishes Disruptive Mood
Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) from Bipolar Disorder in children?
A. The chronic and persistent nature of irritability
B. The frequency of temper outbursts
C. The presence of grandiosity and decreased need for sleep
D. The response to stimulant medications
Answer: A
Explanation: DMDD is characterized by chronic, persistent irritability and frequent temper
outbursts rather than episodic mood changes. In contrast, Bipolar Disorder in children
typically involves discrete episodes of mania or hypomania, including grandiosity. DMDD
was introduced to the DSM-5 to prevent the overdiagnosis of Bipolar Disorder in children
who present with non-episodic irritability.
3. A 14-year-old female presents with severe restriction of energy intake relative to
requirements, an intense fear of gaining weight, and a distorted body image. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Bulimia Nervosa
B. Anorexia Nervosa
,C. Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)
D. Binge Eating Disorder
Answer: B
Explanation: Anorexia Nervosa is defined by the restriction of energy intake leading to
significantly low body weight and a disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is
experienced. Unlike Bulimia, it does not require compensatory behaviors like purging if the
weight is significantly low. ARFID differs because it does not involve distress about body
shape or weight.
4. Which medication is FDA-approved for the treatment of irritability associated with Autism
Spectrum Disorder (ASD) in children aged 5 to 16?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Risperidone
C. Methylphenidate
D. Lithium
Answer: B
Explanation: Risperidone is one of the few medications FDA-approved for treating
irritability, including aggression and self-injury, in children with ASD. Aripiprazole is the
other atypical antipsychotic approved for this specific indication. Clinicians must monitor
for metabolic side effects and extrapyramidal symptoms when prescribing these agents.
5. A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for frequently losing his temper, arguing with
teachers, and actively defying requests. These behaviors have lasted 8 months. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Conduct Disorder
B. Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
C. Intermittent Explosive Disorder
D. Social Anxiety Disorder
Answer: B
Explanation: Oppositional Defiant Disorder involves a pattern of angry/irritable mood,
argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least 6 months. It is
distinguished from Conduct Disorder by the absence of serious violations of the rights of
others or age-appropriate societal norms. The child’s behavior in this scenario aligns
closely with the ODD diagnostic criteria regarding authority figures.
, 6. Which symptom is more commonly associated with major depressive disorder (MDD) in
children and adolescents than in adults?
A. Insomnia
B. Irritable mood
C. Psychomotor retardation
D. Hypersomnia
Answer: B
Explanation: In children and adolescents, an irritable mood may be substituted for a
depressed mood as a core criterion for MDD. Adults more frequently report feelings of
sadness or hopelessness, while youth may appear ‘cranky’ or act out. Recognizing
irritability as a symptom of depression is crucial for accurate diagnosis in pediatric
populations.
7. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for a child diagnosed with severe
Separation Anxiety Disorder that has not responded to therapy?
A. Alprazolam
B. Buspirone
C. Clonidine
D. Fluoxetine
Answer: D
Explanation: Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), such as Fluoxetine, are
considered the first-line pharmacological treatment for pediatric anxiety disorders,
including Separation Anxiety. Benzodiazepines like Alprazolam are generally avoided due
to the risk of disinhibition and dependency. Pharmacotherapy is most effective when
combined with Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT).
8. A 9-year-old girl exhibits a persistent pattern of inhibited, emotionally withdrawn behavior
toward adult caregivers and rarely seeks comfort when distressed. She has a history of social
neglect. What is the diagnosis?
A. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder
B. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
C. Separation Anxiety Disorder
D. Reactive Attachment Disorder (RAD)
Answer: D
