VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Form A B C 2026/2027 | VATI PN
Comprehensive Predictor Exam Study Guide, Form A Form B Form C
Exam Prep, Practical Nursing Comprehensive Predictor, NCLEX-PN
Review, Nursing Fundamentals, Pharmacology, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Maternal Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Leadership,
Practice Questions, Answers & Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new
diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus about dietary management. Which
statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will skip meals if my blood glucose is elevated in the morning."
B. "I should consume most of my carbohydrates during the evening meal."
C. "I will limit my intake of foods that contain simple sugars."
D. "I can use honey as a substitute for table sugar without restrictions."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will limit my intake of foods that contain simple
sugars."
Rationale: A primary dietary goal for clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus is to
control blood glucose levels by limiting simple sugars, which are rapidly absorbed
and cause sharp increases in blood glucose. Skipping meals can lead to
hypoglycemia if the client is taking insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents.
Carbohydrates should be distributed throughout the day, not concentrated in the
evening. Honey is a simple sugar and affects blood glucose similarly to table
sugar, so it must be counted in the carbohydrate allowance.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total
hip arthroplasty. Which action should the nurse take to prevent dislocation of
the affected hip?
A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning to the non-operative side.
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees during meals.
C. Encourage the client to cross the affected leg over the unaffected leg when
repositioning.
D. Avoid using an abduction pillow unless specifically prescribed by the provider.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning to
the non-operative side.
,Rationale: Following total hip arthroplasty, maintaining proper hip alignment is
essential to prevent dislocation. Placing a pillow between the legs during turning
prevents adduction and internal rotation, which are primary mechanisms of
dislocation. Elevating the head of the bed beyond 90 degrees can increase hip
flexion beyond safe limits. Crossing the legs promotes adduction and internal
rotation. An abduction pillow is commonly used to maintain proper alignment and
prevent dislocation.
Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide
intravenously. Which finding should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of
this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride
reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of
water, sodium, potassium, and chloride. A common and potentially dangerous
adverse effect is hypokalemia, which can precipitate cardiac dysrhythmias.
Furosemide is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. It causes potassium loss
rather than retention. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, may occur with hypokalemia
and fluid volume depletion.
Question 4: A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a
new prescription for warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates a need
for further teaching?
A. "I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor."
B. "I will increase my intake of foods high in vitamin K."
C. "I will have my blood tested regularly to check my clotting time."
D. "I will report any unusual bruising or bleeding to my provider."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will increase my intake of foods high in vitamin K."
,Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-
dependent clotting factors. Increasing intake of foods high in vitamin K, such as
leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin and reduce its
therapeutic efficacy. Clients should maintain a consistent, not increased, intake of
vitamin K. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor reduces bleeding risk.
Regular blood testing monitors the international normalized ratio (INR). Reporting
unusual bruising or bleeding is an essential safety measure.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client who has been placed in seclusion
following an episode of aggressive behavior. Which action should the nurse
take?
A. Document the client's behavior and the reason for seclusion after the client is
released.
B. Assess the client's behavior every 15 minutes and document the findings.
C. Offer the client fluids and toileting opportunities every 4 hours.
D. Discuss the client's inappropriate behavior during the seclusion period.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Assess the client's behavior every 15 minutes and
document the findings.
Rationale: Clients in seclusion require frequent monitoring to ensure safety and to
evaluate their readiness for release. Assessing behavior every 15 minutes is a
standard requirement and allows for ongoing evaluation of the client's condition.
Documentation of the behavior precipitating seclusion should occur at the time of
initiation, not delayed until release. Fluids and toileting should be offered more
frequently, typically every 2 hours. Discussing the behavior is not productive
during the seclusion period and should occur after the client has regained control.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin.
Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Heart rate of 58/min
B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate of 16/min
D. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Heart rate of 58/min
, Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate and increases
myocardial contractility. A heart rate below 60/min in an adult is considered
bradycardia and may indicate digoxin toxicity or excessive therapeutic effect. The
nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider. A blood pressure
of 110/70 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 16/min is normal. A
serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the expected reference range;
however, hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
Question 7: A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 12 weeks of
gestation and has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluids each day."
B. "Void every 5 to 6 hours during the day."
C. "Take a bubble bath after intercourse."
D. "Wear tight-fitting undergarments to support the uterus."
CORRECT ANSWER: A. "Drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluids each day."
Rationale: Adequate fluid intake promotes frequent voiding, which flushes
bacteria from the urinary tract and reduces the risk of urinary tract infections.
Pregnant clients are at increased risk due to urinary stasis and hormonal changes.
Voiding every 5 to 6 hours allows urine to stagnate; clients should void every 2 to
3 hours and after intercourse. Bubble baths can irritate the urethra and introduce
bacteria. Tight-fitting undergarments trap moisture and promote bacterial
growth; loose-fitting cotton underwear is recommended.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following
an appendectomy. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A. Pain rating of 5 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Blood pressure of 110/68 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate of 24/min and shallow breathing
D. Urine output of 60 mL over the past 2 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Respiratory rate of 24/min and shallow breathing
Comprehensive Predictor Exam Study Guide, Form A Form B Form C
Exam Prep, Practical Nursing Comprehensive Predictor, NCLEX-PN
Review, Nursing Fundamentals, Pharmacology, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Maternal Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Leadership,
Practice Questions, Answers & Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new
diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus about dietary management. Which
statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will skip meals if my blood glucose is elevated in the morning."
B. "I should consume most of my carbohydrates during the evening meal."
C. "I will limit my intake of foods that contain simple sugars."
D. "I can use honey as a substitute for table sugar without restrictions."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will limit my intake of foods that contain simple
sugars."
Rationale: A primary dietary goal for clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus is to
control blood glucose levels by limiting simple sugars, which are rapidly absorbed
and cause sharp increases in blood glucose. Skipping meals can lead to
hypoglycemia if the client is taking insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents.
Carbohydrates should be distributed throughout the day, not concentrated in the
evening. Honey is a simple sugar and affects blood glucose similarly to table
sugar, so it must be counted in the carbohydrate allowance.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total
hip arthroplasty. Which action should the nurse take to prevent dislocation of
the affected hip?
A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning to the non-operative side.
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees during meals.
C. Encourage the client to cross the affected leg over the unaffected leg when
repositioning.
D. Avoid using an abduction pillow unless specifically prescribed by the provider.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning to
the non-operative side.
,Rationale: Following total hip arthroplasty, maintaining proper hip alignment is
essential to prevent dislocation. Placing a pillow between the legs during turning
prevents adduction and internal rotation, which are primary mechanisms of
dislocation. Elevating the head of the bed beyond 90 degrees can increase hip
flexion beyond safe limits. Crossing the legs promotes adduction and internal
rotation. An abduction pillow is commonly used to maintain proper alignment and
prevent dislocation.
Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide
intravenously. Which finding should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of
this medication?
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride
reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of
water, sodium, potassium, and chloride. A common and potentially dangerous
adverse effect is hypokalemia, which can precipitate cardiac dysrhythmias.
Furosemide is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. It causes potassium loss
rather than retention. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, may occur with hypokalemia
and fluid volume depletion.
Question 4: A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a
new prescription for warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates a need
for further teaching?
A. "I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor."
B. "I will increase my intake of foods high in vitamin K."
C. "I will have my blood tested regularly to check my clotting time."
D. "I will report any unusual bruising or bleeding to my provider."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will increase my intake of foods high in vitamin K."
,Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-
dependent clotting factors. Increasing intake of foods high in vitamin K, such as
leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin and reduce its
therapeutic efficacy. Clients should maintain a consistent, not increased, intake of
vitamin K. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor reduces bleeding risk.
Regular blood testing monitors the international normalized ratio (INR). Reporting
unusual bruising or bleeding is an essential safety measure.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client who has been placed in seclusion
following an episode of aggressive behavior. Which action should the nurse
take?
A. Document the client's behavior and the reason for seclusion after the client is
released.
B. Assess the client's behavior every 15 minutes and document the findings.
C. Offer the client fluids and toileting opportunities every 4 hours.
D. Discuss the client's inappropriate behavior during the seclusion period.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Assess the client's behavior every 15 minutes and
document the findings.
Rationale: Clients in seclusion require frequent monitoring to ensure safety and to
evaluate their readiness for release. Assessing behavior every 15 minutes is a
standard requirement and allows for ongoing evaluation of the client's condition.
Documentation of the behavior precipitating seclusion should occur at the time of
initiation, not delayed until release. Fluids and toileting should be offered more
frequently, typically every 2 hours. Discussing the behavior is not productive
during the seclusion period and should occur after the client has regained control.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin.
Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Heart rate of 58/min
B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate of 16/min
D. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Heart rate of 58/min
, Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate and increases
myocardial contractility. A heart rate below 60/min in an adult is considered
bradycardia and may indicate digoxin toxicity or excessive therapeutic effect. The
nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider. A blood pressure
of 110/70 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 16/min is normal. A
serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the expected reference range;
however, hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
Question 7: A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 12 weeks of
gestation and has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluids each day."
B. "Void every 5 to 6 hours during the day."
C. "Take a bubble bath after intercourse."
D. "Wear tight-fitting undergarments to support the uterus."
CORRECT ANSWER: A. "Drink at least 2 to 3 liters of fluids each day."
Rationale: Adequate fluid intake promotes frequent voiding, which flushes
bacteria from the urinary tract and reduces the risk of urinary tract infections.
Pregnant clients are at increased risk due to urinary stasis and hormonal changes.
Voiding every 5 to 6 hours allows urine to stagnate; clients should void every 2 to
3 hours and after intercourse. Bubble baths can irritate the urethra and introduce
bacteria. Tight-fitting undergarments trap moisture and promote bacterial
growth; loose-fitting cotton underwear is recommended.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following
an appendectomy. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider
immediately?
A. Pain rating of 5 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Blood pressure of 110/68 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate of 24/min and shallow breathing
D. Urine output of 60 mL over the past 2 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Respiratory rate of 24/min and shallow breathing
