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HSC 4558 Final Exam V1 | HSC 4558 Pathophysiology II | Actual Q&A with Rationale (HSC4558 Final Exam) | University of Central Florida

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HSC 4558 Final Exam V1 | HSC 4558 Pathophysiology II | Actual Q&A with Rationale (HSC4558 Final Exam) | University of Central Florida

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HSC 4558 Final Exam V1 | HSC 4558 Pathophysiology II | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (HSC4558 Final Exam) | University of Central Florida
1. A patient presents with a serum sodium level of 120 mEq/L and high urine osmolarity.
Which condition is most likely responsible for this electrolyte imbalance?
A. Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)

B. Diabetes Insipidus

C. Hypoparathyroidism

D. Cushing’s Syndrome
Answer: A
Explanation: SIADH involves the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, which leads to
significant water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The kidneys continue to excrete
sodium despite the low serum levels, resulting in inappropriately concentrated urine. This
pathophysiology differentiates it from Diabetes Insipidus, where there is a deficiency of
ADH and resulting hypernatremia.

2. Which clinical manifestation is a hallmark of Grave’s disease resulting from
hyperthyroidism?
A. Weight gain and bradycardia

B. Myxedema coma

C. Exophthalmos and heat intolerance

D. Cold intolerance and dry skin
Answer: C
Explanation: Grave’s disease is an autoimmune disorder where antibodies stimulate the
TSH receptors, leading to excessive thyroid hormone production. Exophthalmos occurs due
to inflammation and accumulation of glycosaminoglycans in the retro-orbital tissues. The
increased metabolic rate also leads to heat intolerance and weight loss despite increased
appetite.

3. What is the primary pathophysiology behind Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues

B. Excessive glucagon secretion by alpha cells

C. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

D. Inadequate glucose absorption in the gut

,Answer: C
Explanation: Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by an absolute insulin deficiency
due to the T-cell mediated destruction of beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans. This lack of
insulin prevents glucose from entering cells, leading to hyperglycemia and metabolic shifts
toward ketoacidosis. This differs from Type 2 DM, where the primary issue is resistance
rather than complete destruction.

4. A patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) presents with a low hemoglobin level. What is
the most likely cause?
A. Decreased production of erythropoietin

B. Excessive blood loss during hemodialysis

C. Iron deficiency due to poor diet

D. Premature destruction of red blood cells
Answer: A
Explanation: In CKD, the failing kidneys are unable to produce sufficient amounts of
erythropoietin, the hormone responsible for stimulating RBC production in the bone
marrow. This results in normocytic, normochromic anemia as the renal tissue becomes
progressively fibrotic. Management often requires exogenous erythropoiesis-stimulating
agents to maintain adequate oxygen-carrying capacity.

5. Which phase of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) is characterized by a significant drop in urine
output, usually less than 400 mL/day?
A. Diuretic phase

B. Oliguric phase

C. Recovery phase

D. Initiation phase
Answer: B
Explanation: The oliguric phase is the second stage of AKI where glomerular filtration
decreases significantly, leading to fluid overload and metabolic acidosis. Patients in this
phase are at high risk for hyperkalemia due to the inability of the kidneys to excrete
potassium. This phase typically lasts 1 to 2 weeks and requires careful monitoring of
electrolyte levels.

6. What is the primary cause of Cushing’s Disease as opposed to Cushing’s Syndrome?
A. Pituitary adenoma secreting excess ACTH

B. Adrenal cortex tumor
C. Long-term steroid use

, D. Ectopic lung cancer tumor

Answer: A
Explanation: Cushing’s Disease specifically refers to hypercortisolism caused by a
pituitary tumor that overproduces Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH). In contrast,
Cushing’s Syndrome is a broader term encompassing any cause of high cortisol, including
exogenous medications. The excess ACTH stimulates the adrenal glands to release high
levels of glucocorticoids, leading to central obesity and thin skin.

7. Which condition is characterized by the presence of ‘skip lesions’ and transmural
inflammation in the GI tract?
A. Crohn’s Disease

B. Ulcerative Colitis

C. Diverticulosis

D. Irritable Bowel Syndrome

Answer: A
Explanation: Crohn’s Disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of
the GI tract and is noted for its skip lesions, meaning healthy tissue is found between
diseased areas. The inflammation is transmural, affecting all layers of the intestinal wall,
which increases the risk of fistulas and abscesses. Ulcerative Colitis, however, is typically
restricted to the colon and involves only the mucosal layer.

8. In the pathogenesis of Peptic Ulcer Disease, which organism is most frequently implicated?
A. Helicobacter pylori

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Escherichia coli

D. Clostridium difficile

Answer: A
Explanation: Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative bacterium that colonizes the gastric
mucosa and secretes urease to survive in the acidic environment. This infection triggers a
chronic inflammatory response that weakens the protective mucosal barrier, allowing
gastric acid to erode the stomach lining. Eradication of H. pylori is a cornerstone in the
treatment and prevention of ulcer recurrence.

9. What is the hallmark physiological finding in patients with Nephrotic Syndrome?
A. Hematuria and hypertension
B. Pyuria and fever

C. Massive proteinuria (>3.5g/day) and edema

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