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HSC 4558 Exam 1 V1 | HSC 4558 Pathophysiology II | Actual Q&A with Rationale (HSC4558 Exam 1) | University of Central Florida

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HSC 4558 Exam 1 V1 | HSC 4558 Pathophysiology II | Actual Q&A with Rationale (HSC4558 Exam 1) | University of Central Florida

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HSC 4558 Exam 1 V1 | HSC 4558 Pathophysiology II | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (HSC4558 Exam 1) | University of Central Florida
1. A patient presents with extreme thirst, frequent urination, and a blood glucose level of 650
mg/dL. Which pathophysiological state is most likely occurring if the patient also exhibits
Kussmaul respirations and a fruity breath odor?
A. Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS)

B. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

C. Hypoglycemic Shock

D. Somogyi Effect
Answer: B
Explanation: Diabetic Ketoacidosis is characterized by hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis,
and ketonemia. The Kussmaul respirations are a compensatory mechanism to blow off
excess carbon dioxide and reduce acidity. Fruity breath odor results from the production of
acetone during ketone metabolism.

2. Which mechanism best explains the development of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency

B. Absolute insulin deficiency due to beta cell destruction

C. Autoimmune destruction of the alpha cells in the pancreas

D. Excessive glucagon production by the pituitary gland
Answer: A
Explanation: Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus involves a combination of decreased insulin
sensitivity in peripheral tissues and impaired insulin secretion by pancreatic beta cells.
Unlike Type 1, it is not primarily an autoimmune destruction of beta cells. Chronic
overstimulation of the pancreas eventually leads to beta cell exhaustion.

3. A patient with Graves’ disease presents with bulging eyes and an enlarged neck. Which
laboratory finding would support this diagnosis?
A. High Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) and High T4

B. Low TSH and High T4

C. High TSH and Low T4

D. Low TSH and Low T4
Answer: B

,Explanation: Graves’ disease is a form of hyperthyroidism caused by thyroid-stimulating
immunoglobulins that mimic TSH. The excess production of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)
creates a negative feedback loop that suppresses the pituitary’s release of TSH. Therefore,
lab results typically show suppressed TSH levels alongside elevated circulating thyroid
hormones.

4. Which manifestation is considered a medical emergency resulting from untreated or poorly
managed hypothyroidism?
A. Myxedema Coma

B. Thyroid Storm

C. Addisonian Crisis

D. Pheochromocytoma

Answer: A
Explanation: Myxedema coma is the severe, life-threatening expression of hypothyroidism
characterized by altered mental status and hypothermia. It often involves multisystem
organ failure including bradycardia and hypoventilation. Immediate intervention with
thyroid hormone replacement and supportive care is required to prevent death.

5. What is the primary pathophysiology behind the development of Cushing’s Syndrome?
A. Excessive levels of circulating cortisol

B. Deficiency of adrenocortical hormones

C. Hyposecretion of Antidiuretic Hormone

D. Hypersecretion of Epinephrine

Answer: A
Explanation: Cushing’s Syndrome refers to the clinical abnormalities caused by chronic
exposure to excess cortisol. This can be exogenous from steroid use or endogenous from
adrenal or pituitary tumors. Common signs include moon face, buffalo hump, and central
obesity.

6. In Addison’s disease, what causes the characteristic hyperpigmentation of the skin?
A. Increased levels of cortisol

B. Increased levels of Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

C. Decreased levels of Melanosome-stimulating hormone

D. Excessive iron deposition in the skin

Answer: B

, Explanation: In primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s), the low levels of cortisol trigger
the pituitary to produce more ACTH through negative feedback. ACTH and melanocyte-
stimulating hormone (MSH) share a common precursor molecule. Elevated ACTH levels
lead to increased melanin synthesis, resulting in the characteristic bronze skin tone.

7. A patient is diagnosed with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH).
Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse expect?
A. Hypernatremia

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Hyponatremia

D. Hyperkalemia

Answer: C
Explanation: SIADH involves the excessive release of ADH, which causes the kidneys to
reabsorb too much water. This water retention leads to dilutional hyponatremia as the
intravascular volume increases. The patient will typically present with low serum
osmolality and high urine osmolality.

8. Which condition is characterized by the production of large volumes of dilute urine due to
a lack of ADH effect?
A. SIADH

B. Diabetes Mellitus Type 1

C. Diabetes Insipidus

D. Conn Syndrome

Answer: C
Explanation: Diabetes Insipidus (DI) occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH
(neurogenic) or a lack of renal response to ADH (nephrogenic). This results in the inability
of the kidneys to concentrate urine, leading to polyuria and polydipsia. Patients are at high
risk for dehydration and hypernatremia.

9. What is the hallmark physiological finding in a patient experiencing a Pheochromocytoma?
A. Severe hypotension

B. Episodic hypertension

C. Hypoglycemia

D. Bradycardia
Answer: B

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