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HSC 4555 Exam 2 V3 | HSC 4555 Pathophysiology 1 | Actual Q&A with Rationale (HSC4555 Exam 2) | University of Central Florida

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HSC 4555 Exam 2 V3 | HSC 4555 Pathophysiology 1 | Actual Q&A with Rationale (HSC4555 Exam 2) | University of Central Florida

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HSC 4555 Exam 2 V3 | HSC 4555 Pathophysiology 1 | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (HSC4555 Exam 2) | University of Central Florida
1. A patient presents with jugular venous distension, ascites, and peripheral edema. Which of
the following conditions is most likely responsible for these systemic manifestations?
A. Left-sided heart failure

B. Pulmonary edema

C. Acute myocardial infarction

D. Right-sided heart failure
Answer: D
Explanation: Right-sided heart failure occurs when the right ventricle fails to pump blood
effectively into the pulmonary circulation, causing blood to back up in the systemic venous
system. This increased pressure leads to fluid leakage into the tissues, resulting in
peripheral edema and hepatomegaly. Chronic pulmonary diseases are often the primary
cause of this condition, known as cor pulmonale.

2. Which process describes the initial stage of atherosclerosis development where endothelial
injury occurs?
A. Formation of a fatty streak

B. Fibrous plaque development

C. Plaque rupture and thrombosis

D. Endothelial dysfunction and inflammation
Answer: D
Explanation: Atherosclerosis begins with damage to the endothelial lining caused by
factors like hypertension or smoking. This injury triggers an inflammatory response that
attracts leukocytes and allows lipids to infiltrate the vessel wall. Understanding the
inflammatory nature of this disease is critical for managing cardiovascular risks.

3. A patient is experiencing stable angina. Which statement best describes the
pathophysiology of this condition?
A. Total occlusion of a coronary artery leading to necrosis

B. Spasm of the coronary arteries at rest

C. Predictable chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia during exertion

D. Rupture of an unstable plaque resulting in partial occlusion

,Answer: C
Explanation: Stable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs when myocardial
oxygen demand exceeds supply, typically during physical activity. The underlying cause is
usually a fixed atherosclerotic plaque that narrows the vessel lumen but does not
completely block it. Symptoms are typically relieved by rest or nitroglycerin, which reduces
the workload on the heart.

4. What is the primary physiological effect of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
(RAAS) activation?
A. Increased blood volume and systemic vasoconstriction

B. Decreased heart rate and vasodilation

C. Increased excretion of sodium and water

D. Inhibition of ADH secretion
Answer: A
Explanation: The RAAS is activated in response to low blood pressure or reduced renal
perfusion. Angiotensin II acts as a potent vasoconstrictor, while aldosterone promotes
sodium and water retention in the kidneys. These combined actions work to restore blood
pressure and maintain adequate tissue perfusion.

5. A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This change is a
compensatory response to which of the following?
A. Increased afterload

B. Decreased contractility

C. Increased preload

D. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Answer: A
Explanation: Hypertension forces the left ventricle to pump against a higher systemic
vascular resistance, which is defined as afterload. To maintain cardiac output under this
high-pressure load, the myocardial cells undergo hypertrophy to increase their force of
contraction. Eventually, this thickening can reduce the chamber’s volume and lead to
diastolic dysfunction.

6. Which cardiac biomarker is considered the most specific indicator of myocardial infarction?
A. Creatine Kinase (CK-MB)

B. Myoglobin

C. Cardiac Troponin (I or T)

, D. Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)

Answer: C
Explanation: Cardiac troponins are highly sensitive and specific proteins released into the
bloodstream when myocardial cells are damaged. They begin to rise within a few hours of
an MI and can remain elevated for several days. Clinicians rely on serial troponin levels to
confirm the diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome.

7. Which type of shock is characterized by a loss of sympathetic tone and massive
vasodilation?
A. Hypovolemic shock

B. Cardiogenic shock

C. Neurogenic shock

D. Septic shock

Answer: C
Explanation: Neurogenic shock often results from high-level spinal cord injuries that
disrupt the autonomic nervous system. The loss of sympathetic input leads to widespread
vasodilation and a relative hypovolemia. Unlike other forms of shock, this condition is
frequently associated with bradycardia rather than tachycardia.

8. In the pathophysiology of asthma, what is the primary cause of airway obstruction?
A. Permanent destruction of alveolar walls

B. Infection and purulent sputum production

C. Bronchospasm, mucosal edema, and mucus plugging

D. Loss of elastic recoil in the lungs
Answer: C
Explanation: Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder that causes bronchial hyper-
responsiveness. During an attack, inflammatory mediators trigger smooth muscle
contraction and increased capillary permeability. The resulting narrowing of the airways
and excess mucus production significantly increase the work of breathing.

9. A patient is diagnosed with emphysema. Which of the following is a hallmark characteristic
of this disease?
A. Destruction of alveolar walls and loss of elastic recoil

B. Excessive mucus production for at least 3 months

C. Reversible airway obstruction

D. Fluid accumulation in the pleural space

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