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NURS 607 Health Assessment Exam 3 Study Guide | McNeese State University | Comprehensive Questions, Answers & Rationales & Why the Other Answers Are Wrong & References | Modules 10–14 | 2026/2027 Updated

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NURS 607 Health Assessment Exam 3 Study Guide | McNeese State University | Comprehensive Questions, Answers & Rationales & Why the Other Answers Are Wrong & References | Modules 10–14 | 2026/2027 Updated

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NURS 607 HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 3 STUDY GUIDE |
MCNEESE STATE UNIVERSITY | COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS,
ANSWERS & RATIONALES | MODULES 10-14 | 2026/2027
UPDATED
146 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales


100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS


INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED



IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NURS 607 HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 3 STUDY GUIDE | MCNEESE STATE UNIVERSITY |
COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS, ANSWERS & RATIONALES | MODULES 10-14 | 2026/2027 UPDATED. It
contains 146 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each
question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying
pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.

Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas

Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions




Review Summary 146 Questions


Foundations - Application - NURS 607 Health Assessment 3 Study Guide Mcneese State University
Comprehensive & Rationales Modules 10 14 2026/2027 Updated Advanced Health Assessment Across THE
Lifespan Modules 10 14 Graduate Msn/dnp-level Advanced Health Assessment
All answers with rationales

,Table of Contents

Content Area Questions Key Topics

Health History AND 1-25 Finding, Cranial, Presents, Nerve, Assessed
Interviewing

General Survey AND Vital 26-50 Finding, Assessing, Reports, Condition, Likely
Signs

PAIN Assessment 51-75 Finding, Condition, Assessing, Technique, Cranial


Nutritional Assessment 76-100 Finding, Arterial, Client S, Reports, Sounds


SKIN HAIR AND Nails 101-125 Finding, Technique, Cranial, Nerve, Examination


HEAD EYES EARS NOSE 126-146 Finding, Condition, Assessing, Auscultation, Sound
AND Throat

TOTAL 146 All questions include answers and detailed rationales

,Section A - Health History AND Interviewing

Q1.
During auscultation of the heart, a mid-diastolic low-pitched rumble is best heard with the
bell at the apex while the patient is in the left lateral decubitus position. This finding most
strongly suggests:


A. Aortic stenosis B. Mitral stenosis

C. Mitral regurgitation D. Tricuspid stenosis
Correct: B - Mitral stenosis


Rationale:A low-pitched mid-diastolic rumble at the apex accentuated in left lateral decubitus
position is the classic presentation of mitral stenosis, which produces turbulent flow across a
narrowed mitral valve. Aortic stenosis produces a harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo
murmur at the right second intercostal space. Mitral regurgitation is a holosystolic murmur at
the apex radiating to the axilla. Tricuspid stenosis is rare and heard at the left lower sternal
border.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Aortic stenosis is a systolic ejection murmur, not a diastolic rumble.
C. Mitral regurgitation is holosystolic, not mid-diastolic.
D. Tricuspid stenosis is heard at the left lower sternal border, not the apex.
Reference: Bickley, L.S. (2024). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch.
9


Q2.
A patient reports episodic wheezing and chest tightness that worsen at night. Which
assessment technique is most useful to objectively quantify airflow obstruction during the
assessment visit?


A. Pulse oximetry at rest B. Peak expiratory flow measurement

C. Arterial blood gas analysis D. Chest radiograph
Correct: B - Peak expiratory flow measurement


Rationale:Peak expiratory flow (PEF) measurement provides an objective, reproducible
quantification of airflow obstruction and can be performed in the clinical setting. Pulse
oximetry assesses oxygenation, not airflow. ABG reflects gas exchange and is invasive.
Chest radiograph identifies structural abnormalities but does not quantify airflow obstruction.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation, not airflow obstruction.
C. ABG is invasive and reflects gas exchange, not airflow limitation.




Page 3

, Section A - Health History AND Interviewing

D. Chest radiograph identifies structural pathology but not degree of obstruction.

Reference: Bickley, L.S. (2024). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch.
8


Q3.
Which cranial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to shrug the shoulders against
resistance and turn the head against resistance?


A. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal) B. Cranial nerve X (vagus)

C. Cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory) D. Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal)
Correct: C - Cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory)


Rationale:The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the sternocleidomastoid and
trapezius muscles, tested by head rotation and shoulder shrug against resistance. CN IX and
X are assessed via gag reflex and swallowing. CN XII is tested by tongue protrusion and
movement.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. CN IX is tested with gag reflex and taste on posterior tongue.
B. CN X is tested with uvula elevation and gag reflex.
D. CN XII is tested by tongue protrusion and lateral movement.
Reference: Bickley, L.S. (2024). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch.
17


Q4.
A patient presents with unilateral swelling, warmth, and tenderness of the calf after recent
immobilization. Which assessment finding would most increase the likelihood of deep
vein thrombosis?


A. Positive Homans sign B. Unilateral calf circumference difference
>3 cm

C. Bilateral pitting edema D. Erythema limited to the dorsum of the
foot
Correct: B - Unilateral calf circumference difference >3 cm


Rationale:A unilateral calf circumference difference greater than 3 cm is a validated clinical
indicator of DVT. Homans sign has poor sensitivity and specificity and is no longer
recommended as a reliable test. Bilateral edema suggests systemic causes. Localized foot
erythema suggests cellulitis or other pathology.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Homans sign is unreliable and not recommended for DVT assessment.
C. Bilateral pitting edema suggests systemic causes such as heart failure.




Page 4

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