NURS 683 EXAM 3 STUDY GUIDE WITH QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATED WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS - MCNEESE STATE UNIVERSITY
144 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NURS 683 EXAM 3 STUDY GUIDE WITH QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATED WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS - MCNEESE STATE UNIVERSITY. It contains 144 carefully selected questions that reflect the most
current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed
rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 144 Questions
Foundations - Application - NURS 683 3 Study Guide WITH AND 2026 Updated WITH Complete Solutions
- Mcneese State University Advanced Nursing Pathophysiology Pharmacology AND Advanced Health
Assessment 3 Graduate Msn/dnp-level Nursing Mcneese State University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Advanced Health 1-24 Prescribed, Receiving, Finding, Medication, Instruction
Assessment AND Diagnostic
Reasoning
Pharmacological 25-48 Prescribed, Receiving, Instruction, Indicates, Teaching
Management AND
Prescribing Principles
Pathophysiology AND 49-72 Finding, Prescribed, Receiving, Acute, First
Management OF Acute AND
Chronic Conditions
Health Promotion Disease 73-96 Prescribed, Finding, Receiving, Intervention, Appropriate
Prevention AND Patient
Education
Evidence-based AND Clinical 97-120 Prescribed, Disorder, Therapy, Laboratory, Finding
Decision-making
Ethical Legal AND 121-144 Prescribed, Disorder, Receiving, Indicates, Teaching
Professional Issues IN
Advanced Nursing
TOTAL 144 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Advanced Health Assessment AND Diagnostic
Reasoning
Q1.
A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor most closely to detect a common adverse effect?
A. Serum potassium B. Serum calcium
C. Serum magnesium D. Serum phosphorus
Correct: A - Serum potassium
Rationale:Loop diuretics like furosemide cause significant potassium loss, leading to
hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium is essential to prevent arrhythmias. Calcium,
magnesium, and phosphorus are less directly affected by furosemide.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Calcium levels are not typically altered by loop diuretics.
C. While magnesium can be lost, potassium is the primary and most critical electrolyte to
monitor.
D. Phosphorus is not significantly affected by furosemide.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 51.
Q2.
Which assessment finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis
(DKA)?
A. Blood glucose 450 mg/dL, pH 7.25, B. Blood glucose 600 mg/dL, pH 7.40,
bicarbonate 12 mEq/L bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
C. Blood glucose 200 mg/dL, pH 7.50, D. Blood glucose 100 mg/dL, pH 7.35,
bicarbonate 30 mEq/L bicarbonate 22 mEq/L
Correct: A - Blood glucose 450 mg/dL, pH 7.25, bicarbonate 12 mEq/L
Rationale:DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis (low pH, low
bicarbonate), and ketonemia. Option A reflects these classic findings. The other options do
not show the acid-base and glucose pattern typical of DKA.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Normal pH and bicarbonate rule out DKA.
C. Alkalosis and mild hyperglycemia are inconsistent with DKA.
D. Normal glucose and pH are not seen in DKA.
Reference: American Diabetes Association. (2025). Standards of Care in Diabetes-2025. Diabetes Care,
48(Suppl 1).
Page 3
, Section A - Advanced Health Assessment AND Diagnostic Reasoning
Q3.
A patient is receiving heparin infusion. Which laboratory test should the nurse use to
monitor therapeutic effect?
A. aPTT B. PT/INR
C. Platelet count D. Fibrinogen level
Correct: A - aPTT
Rationale:Unfractionated heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT), with a target range typically 1.5-2.5 times control. PT/INR
monitors warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count assesses for HIT, and fibrinogen is not the
primary monitoring parameter.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. PT/INR is used for warfarin monitoring.
C. Platelet count is monitored for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, not therapeutic effect.
D. Fibrinogen is not used to monitor heparin therapy.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 52.
Q4.
Which medication should the nurse question before administration to a patient with a
history of asthma?
A. Propranolol B. Atenolol
C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril
Correct: A - Propranolol
Rationale:Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and
is contraindicated in asthma. Atenolol is beta-1 selective and safer, though still used with
caution. Diltiazem and lisinopril do not cause significant bronchospasm.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Atenolol is cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchospasm.
C. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker and does not affect beta-2 receptors.
D. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor and does not cause bronchoconstriction.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 18.
Q5.
A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
A. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin B. Avoid all green leafy vegetables.
K-rich foods.
Page 4
AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATED WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS - MCNEESE STATE UNIVERSITY
144 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NURS 683 EXAM 3 STUDY GUIDE WITH QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATED WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS - MCNEESE STATE UNIVERSITY. It contains 144 carefully selected questions that reflect the most
current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed
rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 144 Questions
Foundations - Application - NURS 683 3 Study Guide WITH AND 2026 Updated WITH Complete Solutions
- Mcneese State University Advanced Nursing Pathophysiology Pharmacology AND Advanced Health
Assessment 3 Graduate Msn/dnp-level Nursing Mcneese State University
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Advanced Health 1-24 Prescribed, Receiving, Finding, Medication, Instruction
Assessment AND Diagnostic
Reasoning
Pharmacological 25-48 Prescribed, Receiving, Instruction, Indicates, Teaching
Management AND
Prescribing Principles
Pathophysiology AND 49-72 Finding, Prescribed, Receiving, Acute, First
Management OF Acute AND
Chronic Conditions
Health Promotion Disease 73-96 Prescribed, Finding, Receiving, Intervention, Appropriate
Prevention AND Patient
Education
Evidence-based AND Clinical 97-120 Prescribed, Disorder, Therapy, Laboratory, Finding
Decision-making
Ethical Legal AND 121-144 Prescribed, Disorder, Receiving, Indicates, Teaching
Professional Issues IN
Advanced Nursing
TOTAL 144 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Advanced Health Assessment AND Diagnostic
Reasoning
Q1.
A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value should the
nurse monitor most closely to detect a common adverse effect?
A. Serum potassium B. Serum calcium
C. Serum magnesium D. Serum phosphorus
Correct: A - Serum potassium
Rationale:Loop diuretics like furosemide cause significant potassium loss, leading to
hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium is essential to prevent arrhythmias. Calcium,
magnesium, and phosphorus are less directly affected by furosemide.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Calcium levels are not typically altered by loop diuretics.
C. While magnesium can be lost, potassium is the primary and most critical electrolyte to
monitor.
D. Phosphorus is not significantly affected by furosemide.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 51.
Q2.
Which assessment finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis
(DKA)?
A. Blood glucose 450 mg/dL, pH 7.25, B. Blood glucose 600 mg/dL, pH 7.40,
bicarbonate 12 mEq/L bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
C. Blood glucose 200 mg/dL, pH 7.50, D. Blood glucose 100 mg/dL, pH 7.35,
bicarbonate 30 mEq/L bicarbonate 22 mEq/L
Correct: A - Blood glucose 450 mg/dL, pH 7.25, bicarbonate 12 mEq/L
Rationale:DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis (low pH, low
bicarbonate), and ketonemia. Option A reflects these classic findings. The other options do
not show the acid-base and glucose pattern typical of DKA.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Normal pH and bicarbonate rule out DKA.
C. Alkalosis and mild hyperglycemia are inconsistent with DKA.
D. Normal glucose and pH are not seen in DKA.
Reference: American Diabetes Association. (2025). Standards of Care in Diabetes-2025. Diabetes Care,
48(Suppl 1).
Page 3
, Section A - Advanced Health Assessment AND Diagnostic Reasoning
Q3.
A patient is receiving heparin infusion. Which laboratory test should the nurse use to
monitor therapeutic effect?
A. aPTT B. PT/INR
C. Platelet count D. Fibrinogen level
Correct: A - aPTT
Rationale:Unfractionated heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT), with a target range typically 1.5-2.5 times control. PT/INR
monitors warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count assesses for HIT, and fibrinogen is not the
primary monitoring parameter.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. PT/INR is used for warfarin monitoring.
C. Platelet count is monitored for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, not therapeutic effect.
D. Fibrinogen is not used to monitor heparin therapy.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 52.
Q4.
Which medication should the nurse question before administration to a patient with a
history of asthma?
A. Propranolol B. Atenolol
C. Diltiazem D. Lisinopril
Correct: A - Propranolol
Rationale:Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and
is contraindicated in asthma. Atenolol is beta-1 selective and safer, though still used with
caution. Diltiazem and lisinopril do not cause significant bronchospasm.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Atenolol is cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchospasm.
C. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker and does not affect beta-2 receptors.
D. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor and does not cause bronchoconstriction.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 18.
Q5.
A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
A. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin B. Avoid all green leafy vegetables.
K-rich foods.
Page 4
