AAB MEDICAL TECHNOLOGIST EXAM | ALL
PRACTICE Q&A 2026/2027 | A+ GRADED |
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM GUIDE 2026&2027
1. A patient’s serum potassium result is 6.8 mmol/L. The specimen is visibly
hemolyzed, and the patient has no previous history of hyperkalemia. What should
the medical technologist do FIRST?
A. Release the result because potassium is commonly elevated in hospitalized patients
B. Dilute the specimen and repeat the analysis
C. Evaluate the specimen for hemolysis and request recollection according to laboratory
policy
D. Report the result immediately as a critical value
Answer: C
The most appropriate first action is to recognize that significant hemolysis can cause
pseudohyperkalemia through intracellular potassium release. The result should be handled
according to the laboratory's specimen-rejection and recollection procedures.
2. Which quality-control principle is best demonstrated when a laboratory compares
current control results with established target values and control limits before
releasing patient results?
A. Analytical quality assurance
B. Patient identification
C. Specimen accessioning
D. Reference interval verification
Answer: A
Quality control evaluates whether the analytical system is performing within predetermined
limits before patient results are reported.
3. A serum sample intended for bilirubin testing is left exposed to bright light for
several hours. Which effect is most likely?
A. Falsely increased bilirubin
B. Falsely decreased bilirubin
C. No effect because bilirubin is stable at room temperature
D. Falsely increased albumin
Answer: B
Bilirubin is photosensitive. Exposure to light can cause degradation and may produce a falsely
decreased measured bilirubin concentration.
, 4. A patient’s blood smear demonstrates numerous sickle-shaped erythrocytes. Which
condition is most strongly associated with this finding?
A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
D. Sickle cell disease
Answer: D
Sickle-shaped erythrocytes are characteristic of sickling disorders, particularly sickle cell
disease caused by hemoglobin S.
5. During an automated CBC run, the analyzer flags platelet clumping. The platelet
count is markedly decreased, but the patient has no clinical evidence of
thrombocytopenia. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Report the automated platelet count without comment
B. Examine a peripheral blood smear and investigate possible EDTA-dependent platelet
clumping
C. Increase the analyzer aspiration volume
D. Add calcium chloride to the specimen
Answer: B
Platelet clumping can cause pseudothrombocytopenia. A smear review helps confirm
clumping and may support recollection using an alternative anticoagulant when appropriate.
6. Which anticoagulant is routinely used for coagulation studies because it preserves
coagulation factors and allows standardized calcium restoration during testing?
A. Sodium citrate
B. EDTA
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride
Answer: A
Citrate binds calcium reversibly and is the standard anticoagulant for most routine
coagulation testing.
7. A prolonged PT is corrected into the reference interval after mixing patient plasma
1:1 with normal pooled plasma. What does this result most strongly suggest?
A. Lupus anticoagulant
B. Specific factor inhibitor
C. A coagulation factor deficiency
D. Platelet dysfunction
Answer: C
,Correction in a mixing study generally indicates that the normal plasma supplied a deficient
coagulation factor, supporting a factor deficiency rather than an inhibitor.
8. A patient receiving unfractionated heparin has a prolonged aPTT. Which
laboratory test is commonly used to monitor this therapy?
A. PT
B. aPTT
C. Fibrinogen only
D. D-dimer
Answer: B
The activated partial thromboplastin time is traditionally used to monitor unfractionated
heparin therapy, although anti-Xa monitoring may be used in selected circumstances.
9. Which peripheral blood finding is most characteristic of iron deficiency anemia?
A. Macro-ovalocytes
B. Spherocytes
C. Schistocytes
D. Microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes
Answer: D
Iron deficiency typically produces microcytosis and hypochromia, particularly as the deficiency
becomes established.
10. A patient has a decreased hemoglobin concentration, increased MCV, and
hypersegmented neutrophils. Which deficiency is most consistent with these
findings?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Iron
C. Vitamin K
D. Copper
Answer: A
Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia characterized by macrocytosis and
hypersegmented neutrophils.
11. Which leukocyte is normally the most abundant circulating white blood cell in a
healthy adult?
A. Eosinophil
B. Basophil
C. Neutrophil
D. Monocyte
, Answer: C
Neutrophils normally constitute the largest proportion of circulating leukocytes in healthy
adults.
12. A peripheral smear demonstrates numerous schistocytes in a patient with anemia
and thrombocytopenia. Which process should be strongly considered?
A. Megaloblastic hematopoiesis
B. Microangiopathic hemolysis
C. Iron deficiency
D. Hereditary elliptocytosis
Answer: B
Schistocytes are fragmented red cells commonly associated with mechanical or
microangiopathic hemolysis.
13. Which erythrocyte inclusion is composed primarily of denatured hemoglobin and is
best demonstrated with a supravital stain?
A. Howell-Jolly body
B. Pappenheimer body
C. Basophilic stippling
D. Heinz body
Answer: D
Heinz bodies consist of denatured hemoglobin and are demonstrated using supravital
staining methods.
14. A patient has a markedly elevated reticulocyte count following acute blood loss.
What does this finding indicate?
A. Increased bone marrow response to anemia
B. Complete bone marrow failure
C. Decreased erythropoietin production
D. Severe iron overload
Answer: A
An increased reticulocyte count generally reflects an appropriate marrow response to
increased red-cell loss when sufficient erythropoietin and nutrients are available.
15. Which test is most useful for assessing the average blood glucose concentration over
approximately the previous 2–3 months?
A. Fasting glucose
B. Random glucose
PRACTICE Q&A 2026/2027 | A+ GRADED |
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM GUIDE 2026&2027
1. A patient’s serum potassium result is 6.8 mmol/L. The specimen is visibly
hemolyzed, and the patient has no previous history of hyperkalemia. What should
the medical technologist do FIRST?
A. Release the result because potassium is commonly elevated in hospitalized patients
B. Dilute the specimen and repeat the analysis
C. Evaluate the specimen for hemolysis and request recollection according to laboratory
policy
D. Report the result immediately as a critical value
Answer: C
The most appropriate first action is to recognize that significant hemolysis can cause
pseudohyperkalemia through intracellular potassium release. The result should be handled
according to the laboratory's specimen-rejection and recollection procedures.
2. Which quality-control principle is best demonstrated when a laboratory compares
current control results with established target values and control limits before
releasing patient results?
A. Analytical quality assurance
B. Patient identification
C. Specimen accessioning
D. Reference interval verification
Answer: A
Quality control evaluates whether the analytical system is performing within predetermined
limits before patient results are reported.
3. A serum sample intended for bilirubin testing is left exposed to bright light for
several hours. Which effect is most likely?
A. Falsely increased bilirubin
B. Falsely decreased bilirubin
C. No effect because bilirubin is stable at room temperature
D. Falsely increased albumin
Answer: B
Bilirubin is photosensitive. Exposure to light can cause degradation and may produce a falsely
decreased measured bilirubin concentration.
, 4. A patient’s blood smear demonstrates numerous sickle-shaped erythrocytes. Which
condition is most strongly associated with this finding?
A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
D. Sickle cell disease
Answer: D
Sickle-shaped erythrocytes are characteristic of sickling disorders, particularly sickle cell
disease caused by hemoglobin S.
5. During an automated CBC run, the analyzer flags platelet clumping. The platelet
count is markedly decreased, but the patient has no clinical evidence of
thrombocytopenia. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Report the automated platelet count without comment
B. Examine a peripheral blood smear and investigate possible EDTA-dependent platelet
clumping
C. Increase the analyzer aspiration volume
D. Add calcium chloride to the specimen
Answer: B
Platelet clumping can cause pseudothrombocytopenia. A smear review helps confirm
clumping and may support recollection using an alternative anticoagulant when appropriate.
6. Which anticoagulant is routinely used for coagulation studies because it preserves
coagulation factors and allows standardized calcium restoration during testing?
A. Sodium citrate
B. EDTA
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride
Answer: A
Citrate binds calcium reversibly and is the standard anticoagulant for most routine
coagulation testing.
7. A prolonged PT is corrected into the reference interval after mixing patient plasma
1:1 with normal pooled plasma. What does this result most strongly suggest?
A. Lupus anticoagulant
B. Specific factor inhibitor
C. A coagulation factor deficiency
D. Platelet dysfunction
Answer: C
,Correction in a mixing study generally indicates that the normal plasma supplied a deficient
coagulation factor, supporting a factor deficiency rather than an inhibitor.
8. A patient receiving unfractionated heparin has a prolonged aPTT. Which
laboratory test is commonly used to monitor this therapy?
A. PT
B. aPTT
C. Fibrinogen only
D. D-dimer
Answer: B
The activated partial thromboplastin time is traditionally used to monitor unfractionated
heparin therapy, although anti-Xa monitoring may be used in selected circumstances.
9. Which peripheral blood finding is most characteristic of iron deficiency anemia?
A. Macro-ovalocytes
B. Spherocytes
C. Schistocytes
D. Microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes
Answer: D
Iron deficiency typically produces microcytosis and hypochromia, particularly as the deficiency
becomes established.
10. A patient has a decreased hemoglobin concentration, increased MCV, and
hypersegmented neutrophils. Which deficiency is most consistent with these
findings?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Iron
C. Vitamin K
D. Copper
Answer: A
Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia characterized by macrocytosis and
hypersegmented neutrophils.
11. Which leukocyte is normally the most abundant circulating white blood cell in a
healthy adult?
A. Eosinophil
B. Basophil
C. Neutrophil
D. Monocyte
, Answer: C
Neutrophils normally constitute the largest proportion of circulating leukocytes in healthy
adults.
12. A peripheral smear demonstrates numerous schistocytes in a patient with anemia
and thrombocytopenia. Which process should be strongly considered?
A. Megaloblastic hematopoiesis
B. Microangiopathic hemolysis
C. Iron deficiency
D. Hereditary elliptocytosis
Answer: B
Schistocytes are fragmented red cells commonly associated with mechanical or
microangiopathic hemolysis.
13. Which erythrocyte inclusion is composed primarily of denatured hemoglobin and is
best demonstrated with a supravital stain?
A. Howell-Jolly body
B. Pappenheimer body
C. Basophilic stippling
D. Heinz body
Answer: D
Heinz bodies consist of denatured hemoglobin and are demonstrated using supravital
staining methods.
14. A patient has a markedly elevated reticulocyte count following acute blood loss.
What does this finding indicate?
A. Increased bone marrow response to anemia
B. Complete bone marrow failure
C. Decreased erythropoietin production
D. Severe iron overload
Answer: A
An increased reticulocyte count generally reflects an appropriate marrow response to
increased red-cell loss when sufficient erythropoietin and nutrients are available.
15. Which test is most useful for assessing the average blood glucose concentration over
approximately the previous 2–3 months?
A. Fasting glucose
B. Random glucose
