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BIO 322 Final Exam V3 | BIO 322 Applied Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with Rationale (BIO322 Final Exam) | Grand Canyon University

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BIO 322 Final Exam V3 | BIO 322 Applied Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with Rationale (BIO322 Final Exam) | Grand Canyon University

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BIO 322 Final Exam V3 | BIO 322 Applied
Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with Rationale
(BIO322 Final Exam) | Grand Canyon University
1. A patient is diagnosed with atrophy of the quadriceps muscles following prolonged

immobilization in a cast. Which statement best describes the cellular mechanism of this

adaptation?

A. A decrease in cell size caused by the loss of subcellular organelles.


B. An increase in cell size due to increased protein synthesis.


C. The replacement of one adult cell type by another less differentiated cell type.


D. An increase in the number of cells resulting from increased physiological demand.


Correct Answer: A


Explanation: Atrophy represents a decrease in cellular size and function caused by factors

such as disuse, denervation, or ischemia. During this process, the cell shrinks by decreasing

its number of organelles and protein content to reach a new equilibrium. This is a

reversible adaptation unless the underlying cause persists and leads to cell death.


2. Which of the following clinical manifestations are characteristic of the vascular stage of

acute inflammation? (Select All That Apply)

A. Vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation


B. Increased capillary permeability

,C. Movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces


D. Redness (erythema) and heat at the site


E. Decreased osmotic pressure in the interstitial fluid


F. Leukocyte margination and emigration


Correct Answer: A, B, C, D


Explanation: The vascular stage of inflammation is characterized by brief vasoconstriction

followed by rapid vasodilation, which increases blood flow to the area causing redness and

heat. Increased capillary permeability allows protein-rich fluid to escape into the

interstitial space, resulting in edema and swelling. While leukocyte margination is part of

the cellular stage, it is not considered part of the initial vascular response.


3. A nurse is caring for a patient with severe hypoproteinemia secondary to liver failure. The

nurse understands that the patient is at high risk for edema due to which mechanism?

A. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure


B. Decreased capillary colloidal osmotic pressure


C. Obstruction of lymphatic flow


D. Increased interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure


Correct Answer: B


Explanation: Albumin and other plasma proteins generated by the liver are the primary

drivers of capillary colloidal osmotic pressure, which pulls fluid back into the vessels. In

,liver failure, protein synthesis drops, leading to a loss of this inward force and causing fluid

to remain in the tissue. This differs from hydrostatic pressure, which is an ‘outward’ force

typically increased by fluid volume excess or heart failure.


4. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by IgE antibodies and involves the

release of histamine from mast cells, potentially leading to anaphylaxis?

A. Type IV (Delayed)


B. Type II (Cytotoxic)


C. Type III (Immune Complex)


D. Type I (Immediate)


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: Type I hypersensitivity is an IgE-mediated response that occurs rapidly after

exposure to an antigen in a sensitized individual. The binding of the antigen to IgE on mast

cells triggers degranulation and the release of inflammatory mediators like histamine. This

reaction can range from mild local symptoms to life-threatening systemic anaphylaxis.


5. An arterial blood gas (ABG) report shows a pH of 7.25, PaCO2 of 38 mmHg, and HCO3- of 18

mEq/L. Which acid-base imbalance is the patient experiencing?

A. Respiratory Acidosis


B. Respiratory Alkalosis


C. Metabolic Alkalosis

, D. Metabolic Acidosis


Correct Answer: D


Explanation: The pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating acidosis. The HCO3-

is low (normal 22-26 mEq/L), while the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mmHg),

indicating that the primary cause is metabolic. This pattern is commonly seen in conditions

like diabetic ketoacidosis, renal failure, or severe diarrhea.


6. Malignant tumors differ from benign tumors in which of the following ways? (Select All

That Apply)

A. Malignant tumors are poorly differentiated (anaplasia).


B. Malignant tumors grow by expansion and are usually encapsulated.


C. Malignant tumors have the potential to metastasize via blood or lymph.


D. Malignant tumors exhibit rapid, infiltrative growth into surrounding tissues.


E. Malignant tumors have a low mitotic index.


Correct Answer: A, C, D


Explanation: Malignant neoplasms are characterized by poor differentiation, which is the

loss of specialized cell features, and a high rate of mitosis. They grow through infiltration

rather than expansion and lack a fibrous capsule, facilitating their spread to distant sites.

Benign tumors, by contrast, are well-differentiated, encapsulated, and do not metastasize.

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