VIRTUAL ATI PREDICTOR (GREEN LIGHT)
EXAM 300 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE
ALREADY GRADED A+ ASSURED PASS
The Virtual ATI Predictor (Green Light) Exam is a comprehensive proctored
assessment that evaluates nursing students' readiness for the NCLEX-RN or
NCLEX-PN licensure exam. It contains 180 items, with approximately 150 scored
questions covering all major client need categories including Management of Care,
Safety and Infection Control, Health Promotion, Psychosocial Integrity, Basic Care
and Comfort, Pharmacological Therapies, Reduction of Risk Potential, and
Physiological Adaptation. Achieving Green Light status indicates a student has
demonstrated the clinical judgment and content mastery needed to pass the
NCLEX. Many nursing programs require Green Light before approving students to
sit for the licensure exam. The exam serves as a diagnostic tool identifying
strengths and areas needing remediation.
Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should be assessed first?
A. Post-op day 2 client reporting pain 5/10
B. New admission with BP 90/50, HR 120, pale and diaphoretic
C. Client with dementia trying to get out of bed
D. Client requesting pain medication 30 minutes early
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension, tachycardia, and diaphoresis indicate possible shock. This
is an unstable client requiring immediate assessment. Pain and safety concerns are
important but not the priority over hemodynamic instability.
2. A charge nurse is delegating tasks. Which task can be assigned to unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assess a client's lung sounds
B. Teach a client how to use an incentive spirometer
,C. Measure orthostatic blood pressures
D. Evaluate the effectiveness of a pain medication
Answer: C
Rationale: UAP can perform routine vital signs including orthostatic blood
pressures. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation require nursing judgment and
cannot be delegated.
3. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for four clients. Which client should be
placed in a private room?
A. Client with pneumonia
B. Client with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
C. Client with diabetic foot ulcer
D. Client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Answer: B
Rationale: MRSA requires contact isolation; a private room is essential to prevent
transmission. Pneumonia may require droplet precautions but MRSA contact is the
priority for single-room assignment.
4. A charge nurse assigns a float RN who usually works in postpartum to a
medical-surgical unit. Which client is most appropriate for this RN?
A. Client in diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Client who is postoperative day 2 following an appendectomy, stable
C. Client with a chest tube for pneumothorax
D. Client receiving IV heparin for deep vein thrombosis
Answer: B
Rationale: A stable, low-acuity postoperative client is safest for a float nurse from
a different specialty. Complex or unstable clients require an RN with current
experience in those areas.
5. A nurse is delegating tasks to assistive personnel (AP). Which task is
appropriate to delegate?
A. Assess a postoperative incision
B. Teach a client how to use a walker
C. Obtain a capillary blood glucose level
,D. Evaluate a client's pain level
Answer: C
Rationale: APs can perform capillary blood glucose testing. Assessment, teaching,
and evaluation require nursing judgment.
6. A nurse is supervising a newly licensed nurse on a mental health unit. For which
action should the nurse intervene?
A. Sets boundaries with a manipulative client
B. Documents client refusals of medication
C. Tells a client he will lose phone privileges if he does not take his medication
D. Uses therapeutic communication techniques
Answer: C
Rationale: Threatening to remove privileges as a consequence for refusing
medication is coercive and violates client autonomy.
7. A competent adult client refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons.
Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)
A. Verify the client understands risks
B. Document the refusal
C. Administer the transfusion if Hgb is critical
D. Notify the provider
E. Ask the family to override the decision
Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Competent adults have autonomy. The nurse ensures informed refusal,
documents the refusal, and notifies the provider. Administering the transfusion or
asking family to override violates client rights.
8. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is delegating tasks to an LPN/LVN. Which
task should the nurse delegate?
A. Initial admission assessment of a patient with pneumonia
B. Teaching a diabetic patient how to self-administer insulin
C. Administration of a tube feeding to a patient with a gastrostomy tube
D. Evaluation of a patient's response to pain medication
, Answer: C
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs can administer enteral feedings and perform stable,
predictable tasks. Initial assessments, teaching, and evaluation require RN-level
critical thinking.
9. A PN is assigned to care for a client who has a new cast on the right arm. Which
task should the PN delegate to the UAP?
A. Assessing the client's capillary refill in the affected hand
B. Teaching the client how to keep the cast dry while showering
C. Assisting the client with ambulation to the bathroom
D. Evaluating the client's pain level using the 0-10 scale
Answer: C
Rationale: Assisting with ambulation is a standard, stable task within the UAP
scope. The PN cannot delegate assessment, evaluation, or teaching as these require
professional nursing judgment.
10. A client with dementia has an order for bilateral soft wrist restraints. Which
action is required?
A. Secure the restraint ties to the side rails
B. Apply the restraint snugly against the skin
C. Obtain a written prescription for the restraint application
D. Observe the client every 60 minutes after application
Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints require a physician's written order specifying duration and
reason. Ties must never be secured to side rails. The restraint should allow two
fingers of width. Observations must be made every 15-30 minutes.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The
family asks what DNR means. The nurse should respond:
A. "It means we will not provide any treatment to keep the patient alive."
B. "It means that if the patient stops breathing or the heart stops, we will not
perform CPR or advanced cardiac life support."
C. "I cannot discuss that; you need to talk to the doctor."
D. "It means the patient will be allowed to die naturally without any medical care."
EXAM 300 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE
ALREADY GRADED A+ ASSURED PASS
The Virtual ATI Predictor (Green Light) Exam is a comprehensive proctored
assessment that evaluates nursing students' readiness for the NCLEX-RN or
NCLEX-PN licensure exam. It contains 180 items, with approximately 150 scored
questions covering all major client need categories including Management of Care,
Safety and Infection Control, Health Promotion, Psychosocial Integrity, Basic Care
and Comfort, Pharmacological Therapies, Reduction of Risk Potential, and
Physiological Adaptation. Achieving Green Light status indicates a student has
demonstrated the clinical judgment and content mastery needed to pass the
NCLEX. Many nursing programs require Green Light before approving students to
sit for the licensure exam. The exam serves as a diagnostic tool identifying
strengths and areas needing remediation.
Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should be assessed first?
A. Post-op day 2 client reporting pain 5/10
B. New admission with BP 90/50, HR 120, pale and diaphoretic
C. Client with dementia trying to get out of bed
D. Client requesting pain medication 30 minutes early
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension, tachycardia, and diaphoresis indicate possible shock. This
is an unstable client requiring immediate assessment. Pain and safety concerns are
important but not the priority over hemodynamic instability.
2. A charge nurse is delegating tasks. Which task can be assigned to unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assess a client's lung sounds
B. Teach a client how to use an incentive spirometer
,C. Measure orthostatic blood pressures
D. Evaluate the effectiveness of a pain medication
Answer: C
Rationale: UAP can perform routine vital signs including orthostatic blood
pressures. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation require nursing judgment and
cannot be delegated.
3. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for four clients. Which client should be
placed in a private room?
A. Client with pneumonia
B. Client with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
C. Client with diabetic foot ulcer
D. Client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Answer: B
Rationale: MRSA requires contact isolation; a private room is essential to prevent
transmission. Pneumonia may require droplet precautions but MRSA contact is the
priority for single-room assignment.
4. A charge nurse assigns a float RN who usually works in postpartum to a
medical-surgical unit. Which client is most appropriate for this RN?
A. Client in diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Client who is postoperative day 2 following an appendectomy, stable
C. Client with a chest tube for pneumothorax
D. Client receiving IV heparin for deep vein thrombosis
Answer: B
Rationale: A stable, low-acuity postoperative client is safest for a float nurse from
a different specialty. Complex or unstable clients require an RN with current
experience in those areas.
5. A nurse is delegating tasks to assistive personnel (AP). Which task is
appropriate to delegate?
A. Assess a postoperative incision
B. Teach a client how to use a walker
C. Obtain a capillary blood glucose level
,D. Evaluate a client's pain level
Answer: C
Rationale: APs can perform capillary blood glucose testing. Assessment, teaching,
and evaluation require nursing judgment.
6. A nurse is supervising a newly licensed nurse on a mental health unit. For which
action should the nurse intervene?
A. Sets boundaries with a manipulative client
B. Documents client refusals of medication
C. Tells a client he will lose phone privileges if he does not take his medication
D. Uses therapeutic communication techniques
Answer: C
Rationale: Threatening to remove privileges as a consequence for refusing
medication is coercive and violates client autonomy.
7. A competent adult client refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons.
Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)
A. Verify the client understands risks
B. Document the refusal
C. Administer the transfusion if Hgb is critical
D. Notify the provider
E. Ask the family to override the decision
Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Competent adults have autonomy. The nurse ensures informed refusal,
documents the refusal, and notifies the provider. Administering the transfusion or
asking family to override violates client rights.
8. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is delegating tasks to an LPN/LVN. Which
task should the nurse delegate?
A. Initial admission assessment of a patient with pneumonia
B. Teaching a diabetic patient how to self-administer insulin
C. Administration of a tube feeding to a patient with a gastrostomy tube
D. Evaluation of a patient's response to pain medication
, Answer: C
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs can administer enteral feedings and perform stable,
predictable tasks. Initial assessments, teaching, and evaluation require RN-level
critical thinking.
9. A PN is assigned to care for a client who has a new cast on the right arm. Which
task should the PN delegate to the UAP?
A. Assessing the client's capillary refill in the affected hand
B. Teaching the client how to keep the cast dry while showering
C. Assisting the client with ambulation to the bathroom
D. Evaluating the client's pain level using the 0-10 scale
Answer: C
Rationale: Assisting with ambulation is a standard, stable task within the UAP
scope. The PN cannot delegate assessment, evaluation, or teaching as these require
professional nursing judgment.
10. A client with dementia has an order for bilateral soft wrist restraints. Which
action is required?
A. Secure the restraint ties to the side rails
B. Apply the restraint snugly against the skin
C. Obtain a written prescription for the restraint application
D. Observe the client every 60 minutes after application
Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints require a physician's written order specifying duration and
reason. Ties must never be secured to side rails. The restraint should allow two
fingers of width. Observations must be made every 15-30 minutes.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The
family asks what DNR means. The nurse should respond:
A. "It means we will not provide any treatment to keep the patient alive."
B. "It means that if the patient stops breathing or the heart stops, we will not
perform CPR or advanced cardiac life support."
C. "I cannot discuss that; you need to talk to the doctor."
D. "It means the patient will be allowed to die naturally without any medical care."
