BIO 322 Exam 3 V1 | BIO 322 Applied Pathophysiology
| Actual Q&A with Rationale (BIO322 Exam 3) | Grand
Canyon University
1. Which of the following clinical manifestations are associated with acute respiratory
distress syndrome (ARDS)? Select all that apply.
A. Severe hypoxemia
B. Decreased lung compliance
C. Diffuse alveolar infiltrates on chest X-ray
D. Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (>18 mmHg)
E. Dyspnea and tachypnea
F. Bradypnea
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
Explanation: ARDS is characterized by a sudden and progressive form of acute respiratory
failure where the alveolar-capillary membrane becomes damaged and more permeable to
intravascular fluid. Key clinical features include refractory hypoxemia, which does not
improve with oxygen administration, and decreased lung compliance or ‘stiff lungs.’ Chest
imaging typically shows bilateral diffuse infiltrates, while the wedge pressure remains low
or normal because the condition is non-cardiogenic.
,2. A patient with emphysema presents with a barrel-shaped chest. What is the primary
pathophysiological mechanism responsible for this finding?
A. Excessive mucus production in the bronchi
B. Fluid accumulation in the pleural space
C. Air trapping and alveolar hyperinflation
D. Constriction of the smooth muscle in the airway
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Emphysema involves the destruction of alveolar walls and the loss of elastic
recoil, leading to permanent enlargement of air spaces. This loss of elasticity causes air to
become trapped during expiration, which hyperinflates the lungs over time. The
characteristic barrel chest is a compensatory structural change resulting from this chronic
hyperinflation and increased anterior-posterior diameter.
3. During the exudative phase of ARDS, what occurs within the pulmonary system?
A. Proliferation of Type II pneumocytes
B. Resolution of pulmonary edema
C. Development of hyaline membranes
D. Extensive pulmonary fibrosis
Correct Answer: C
,Explanation: The exudative phase occurs within the first 24 to 72 hours after the initial
lung injury. During this time, damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane leads to the
accumulation of protein-rich fluid and cellular debris in the alveoli. This debris forms
hyaline membranes that line the alveoli, severely impairing gas exchange and leading to
hypoxemia.
4. Which factor is a major risk for the development of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Venous stasis due to immobility
C. Active immunization
D. Increased dietary fiber intake
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Venous stasis is one of the three components of Virchow’s triad, which
contributes significantly to thrombus formation. In hospitalized or post-operative patients,
prolonged immobility slows blood flow in the deep veins of the legs, increasing the risk of
deep vein thrombosis (DVT). If a DVT dislodges, it travels to the pulmonary circulation,
resulting in a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.
5. Which of the following triggers are commonly associated with an extrinsic asthma attack?
Select all that apply.
A. Pollen
B. Animal dander
, C. Dust mites
D. Emotional stress
E. Exercise
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Explanation: Extrinsic or atopic asthma is triggered by an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity
reaction to external allergens. Common allergens include environmental proteins like
pollen, pet dander, and household dust mites. In contrast, intrinsic asthma is typically
triggered by non-allergic factors such as cold air, exercise, or emotional stress.
6. A patient is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia. Which organism is the most
frequent causative agent?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-
acquired pneumonia across all age groups. It is a Gram-positive bacterium that typically
causes lobar pneumonia through inhalation or aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions.
| Actual Q&A with Rationale (BIO322 Exam 3) | Grand
Canyon University
1. Which of the following clinical manifestations are associated with acute respiratory
distress syndrome (ARDS)? Select all that apply.
A. Severe hypoxemia
B. Decreased lung compliance
C. Diffuse alveolar infiltrates on chest X-ray
D. Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (>18 mmHg)
E. Dyspnea and tachypnea
F. Bradypnea
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
Explanation: ARDS is characterized by a sudden and progressive form of acute respiratory
failure where the alveolar-capillary membrane becomes damaged and more permeable to
intravascular fluid. Key clinical features include refractory hypoxemia, which does not
improve with oxygen administration, and decreased lung compliance or ‘stiff lungs.’ Chest
imaging typically shows bilateral diffuse infiltrates, while the wedge pressure remains low
or normal because the condition is non-cardiogenic.
,2. A patient with emphysema presents with a barrel-shaped chest. What is the primary
pathophysiological mechanism responsible for this finding?
A. Excessive mucus production in the bronchi
B. Fluid accumulation in the pleural space
C. Air trapping and alveolar hyperinflation
D. Constriction of the smooth muscle in the airway
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Emphysema involves the destruction of alveolar walls and the loss of elastic
recoil, leading to permanent enlargement of air spaces. This loss of elasticity causes air to
become trapped during expiration, which hyperinflates the lungs over time. The
characteristic barrel chest is a compensatory structural change resulting from this chronic
hyperinflation and increased anterior-posterior diameter.
3. During the exudative phase of ARDS, what occurs within the pulmonary system?
A. Proliferation of Type II pneumocytes
B. Resolution of pulmonary edema
C. Development of hyaline membranes
D. Extensive pulmonary fibrosis
Correct Answer: C
,Explanation: The exudative phase occurs within the first 24 to 72 hours after the initial
lung injury. During this time, damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane leads to the
accumulation of protein-rich fluid and cellular debris in the alveoli. This debris forms
hyaline membranes that line the alveoli, severely impairing gas exchange and leading to
hypoxemia.
4. Which factor is a major risk for the development of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Venous stasis due to immobility
C. Active immunization
D. Increased dietary fiber intake
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Venous stasis is one of the three components of Virchow’s triad, which
contributes significantly to thrombus formation. In hospitalized or post-operative patients,
prolonged immobility slows blood flow in the deep veins of the legs, increasing the risk of
deep vein thrombosis (DVT). If a DVT dislodges, it travels to the pulmonary circulation,
resulting in a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.
5. Which of the following triggers are commonly associated with an extrinsic asthma attack?
Select all that apply.
A. Pollen
B. Animal dander
, C. Dust mites
D. Emotional stress
E. Exercise
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Explanation: Extrinsic or atopic asthma is triggered by an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity
reaction to external allergens. Common allergens include environmental proteins like
pollen, pet dander, and household dust mites. In contrast, intrinsic asthma is typically
triggered by non-allergic factors such as cold air, exercise, or emotional stress.
6. A patient is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia. Which organism is the most
frequent causative agent?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-
acquired pneumonia across all age groups. It is a Gram-positive bacterium that typically
causes lobar pneumonia through inhalation or aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions.
