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BIO 322 Exam 2 V1 | BIO 322 Applied Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with Rationale (BIO322 Exam 2) | Grand Canyon University

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BIO 322 Exam 2 V1 | BIO 322 Applied Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with Rationale (BIO322 Exam 2) | Grand Canyon University

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BIO 322 Exam 2 V1 | BIO 322 Applied
Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A with Rationale
(BIO322 Exam 2) | Grand Canyon University
1. A patient presents with symptoms of Left-Sided Heart Failure. Which of the following

clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess? Select all that apply.

A. Dyspnea


B. Orthopnea


C. Crackles upon lung auscultation


D. Peripheral edema


E. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea


F. Jugular venous distension


Correct Answer: A, B, C, E


Explanation: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion because the left

ventricle cannot effectively pump blood into the systemic circulation. This causes fluid to

back up into the pulmonary veins and capillaries, resulting in dyspnea, crackles, and

orthopnea. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distension are classic signs of right-sided

heart failure rather than left-sided failure.

,2. A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which of the following

pathophysiological mechanisms is responsible for this condition?

A. Chronic blood loss from the GI tract


B. Deficiency of intrinsic factor due to gastric atrophy


C. Impaired DNA synthesis caused by folate deficiency


D. Shortened lifespan of red blood cells


Correct Answer: B


Explanation: Pernicious anemia is a type of macrocytic-normochromic anemia caused by

the lack of intrinsic factor, which is required for the absorption of Vitamin B12. This

deficiency often results from autoimmune-mediated gastric atrophy. Without Vitamin B12,

the maturation of red blood cells is impaired, leading to the clinical manifestations of

anemia and neurological symptoms.


3. Which of the following describes the compensatory mechanism of the Renin-Angiotensin-

Aldosterone System (RAAS) in response to decreased renal perfusion?

A. Increased sodium and water reabsorption to expand blood volume


B. Vasodilation of the afferent arterioles to increase GFR


C. Decreased peripheral resistance to lower blood pressure


D. Inhibition of ADH secretion to prevent fluid overload


Correct Answer: A

, Explanation: The RAAS is activated when renal perfusion decreases, leading to the release

of renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which is then converted to

angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin II also stimulates the release of

aldosterone, which promotes sodium and water retention to increase blood volume and

pressure.


4. In the development of emphysema, what is the primary cause of alveolar wall destruction?

A. Hypertrophy of mucus-secreting glands


B. Imbalance between proteases and antiproteases


C. Chronic bacterial infection of the bronchioles


D. Increased elastic recoil of the lung tissue


Correct Answer: B


Explanation: Emphysema is characterized by the permanent enlargement of gas-exchange

airways and the destruction of alveolar walls. This destruction is primarily caused by an

imbalance between proteases (which break down elastin) and antiproteases like alpha-1

antitrypsin. Smoking increases protease activity while inhibiting antiprotease protection,

leading to the loss of elastic recoil in the lungs.


5. A patient is in the oliguric phase of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI). Which of the following

findings should the nurse anticipate?

A. Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)


B. Metabolic alkalosis

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