NUR209 MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING II EXAM 1 FORTIS
2026/2027 - QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED
COMPLETE VERIFIED ANSWERS - PASS GUARANTEED - A+
GRADED
146 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR209 MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING II EXAM 1 FORTIS 2026/2027 - QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED COMPLETE VERIFIED ANSWERS - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 146 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 146 Questions
Foundations - Application - Nur209 Medical Surgical Nursing II 1 Fortis 2026/2027 AND 100 Complete
PASS Guaranteed A Medical-surgical Nursing II Undergraduate YEAR 3 Prelicensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Nur209 Medical Surgical 1-25 Acute, Receiving, Finding, Arterial, Pressure
Nursing II 1 Fortis 2026/2027
AND 100 Complete PASS
Guaranteed A
Medical-surgical Nursing II
Undergraduate YEAR 3
Prelicensure BSN
Finding 26-50 Indicates, Acute, Intervention, Receiving, Injury
Receiving 51-75 Acute, Pathophysiologic, Intervention, Serum, Explains
Indicates 76-100 Acute, Finding, Intervention, Failure, Decompensated Heart
Intervention 101-125 Finding, Receiving, Serum, Acute, Blood
Prescribed 126-146 Acute, Finding, Indicates, Chronic, Receiving
TOTAL 146 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Nur209 Medical Surgical Nursing II 1 Fortis
2026/2027 AND 100 Complete PASS Guaranteed A
Medical-surgical Nursing II Undergraduate YEAR 3
Prelicensure BSN
Q1.
A patient with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving continuous IV furosemide.
Which assessment finding most urgently indicates a need to reassess the diuretic
regimen?
A. Serum potassium 3.1 mEq/L with B. Urine output 1,200 mL over the past 8
new-onset U waves hours
C. Blood pressure 108/68 mm Hg D. Serum sodium 134 mEq/L
Correct: A - Serum potassium 3.1 mEq/L with new-onset U waves
Rationale:Loop diuretics cause significant potassium loss; hypokalemia with U waves signals
cardiac instability and risk for dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. The other
options reflect expected diuretic effects or mild findings not requiring urgent change.
Q2.
A patient with COPD has an arterial blood gas showing pH 7.32, PaCO2 58 mm Hg, and
HCO3- 28 mEq/L. Which pathophysiologic mechanism best explains these results?
A. Acute ventilatory failure with no renal B. Chronic respiratory acidosis with
compensation metabolic compensation
C. Acute metabolic alkalosis with respiratory D. Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
compensation
Correct: B - Chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
Rationale:Elevated HCO3- indicates renal compensation, which takes days to develop, so
this represents chronic respiratory acidosis. Acute ventilatory failure would show normal
bicarbonate, while metabolic alkalosis would have elevated pH.
Q3.
A patient with chronic kidney disease has a hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL and is prescribed
epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value must be evaluated before administration to ensure
safety and efficacy?
A. Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation B. Serum creatinine and BUN
Page 3
, Section A - Nur209 Medical Surgical Nursing II 1 Fortis 2026/2027 AND 100 Complete PASS Guaranteed A Medical-surgical Nursing II
Undergraduate YEAR 3 Prelicensure BSN
C. Serum potassium and phosphorus D. White blood cell count and platelet count
Correct: A - Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation
Rationale:Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents require adequate iron stores for effective
erythropoiesis; ferritin and transferrin saturation must be assessed and corrected if low. The
other labs are relevant to CKD but do not determine epoetin efficacy.
Q4.
A patient with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. After initial fluid
resuscitation, which insulin regimen is most appropriate?
A. Subcutaneous insulin glargine once daily B. IV regular insulin infusion titrated to
glucose
C. Subcutaneous insulin lispro every 6 D. IV insulin aspart bolus every 4 hours
hours
Correct: B - IV regular insulin infusion titrated to glucose
Rationale:DKA management requires a continuous IV regular insulin infusion to rapidly lower
glucose and suppress ketogenesis, with frequent monitoring. Subcutaneous regimens have
delayed absorption and are not titratable in acute DKA.
Q5.
A patient with a new diagnosis of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) has been
receiving unfractionated heparin. Which action is the priority?
A. Discontinue all heparin products B. Administer vitamin K to reverse heparin
immediately
C. Transfuse platelets to maintain count D. Switch to low-molecular-weight heparin
>50,000
Correct: A - Discontinue all heparin products immediately
Rationale:HIT is an immune-mediated reaction requiring immediate cessation of all heparin,
including flushes and LMWH, to prevent thrombosis. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin;
platelet transfusion is contraindicated unless bleeding; LMWH cross-reacts.
Q6.
A patient receiving chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia has a neutrophil count of
400/mm3 and a temperature of 38.3°C. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics B. Obtain blood cultures and wait for results
within 1 hour before antibiotics
Page 4
2026/2027 - QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED
COMPLETE VERIFIED ANSWERS - PASS GUARANTEED - A+
GRADED
146 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR209 MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING II EXAM 1 FORTIS 2026/2027 - QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED COMPLETE VERIFIED ANSWERS - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 146 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 146 Questions
Foundations - Application - Nur209 Medical Surgical Nursing II 1 Fortis 2026/2027 AND 100 Complete
PASS Guaranteed A Medical-surgical Nursing II Undergraduate YEAR 3 Prelicensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Nur209 Medical Surgical 1-25 Acute, Receiving, Finding, Arterial, Pressure
Nursing II 1 Fortis 2026/2027
AND 100 Complete PASS
Guaranteed A
Medical-surgical Nursing II
Undergraduate YEAR 3
Prelicensure BSN
Finding 26-50 Indicates, Acute, Intervention, Receiving, Injury
Receiving 51-75 Acute, Pathophysiologic, Intervention, Serum, Explains
Indicates 76-100 Acute, Finding, Intervention, Failure, Decompensated Heart
Intervention 101-125 Finding, Receiving, Serum, Acute, Blood
Prescribed 126-146 Acute, Finding, Indicates, Chronic, Receiving
TOTAL 146 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Nur209 Medical Surgical Nursing II 1 Fortis
2026/2027 AND 100 Complete PASS Guaranteed A
Medical-surgical Nursing II Undergraduate YEAR 3
Prelicensure BSN
Q1.
A patient with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving continuous IV furosemide.
Which assessment finding most urgently indicates a need to reassess the diuretic
regimen?
A. Serum potassium 3.1 mEq/L with B. Urine output 1,200 mL over the past 8
new-onset U waves hours
C. Blood pressure 108/68 mm Hg D. Serum sodium 134 mEq/L
Correct: A - Serum potassium 3.1 mEq/L with new-onset U waves
Rationale:Loop diuretics cause significant potassium loss; hypokalemia with U waves signals
cardiac instability and risk for dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. The other
options reflect expected diuretic effects or mild findings not requiring urgent change.
Q2.
A patient with COPD has an arterial blood gas showing pH 7.32, PaCO2 58 mm Hg, and
HCO3- 28 mEq/L. Which pathophysiologic mechanism best explains these results?
A. Acute ventilatory failure with no renal B. Chronic respiratory acidosis with
compensation metabolic compensation
C. Acute metabolic alkalosis with respiratory D. Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
compensation
Correct: B - Chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
Rationale:Elevated HCO3- indicates renal compensation, which takes days to develop, so
this represents chronic respiratory acidosis. Acute ventilatory failure would show normal
bicarbonate, while metabolic alkalosis would have elevated pH.
Q3.
A patient with chronic kidney disease has a hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL and is prescribed
epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value must be evaluated before administration to ensure
safety and efficacy?
A. Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation B. Serum creatinine and BUN
Page 3
, Section A - Nur209 Medical Surgical Nursing II 1 Fortis 2026/2027 AND 100 Complete PASS Guaranteed A Medical-surgical Nursing II
Undergraduate YEAR 3 Prelicensure BSN
C. Serum potassium and phosphorus D. White blood cell count and platelet count
Correct: A - Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation
Rationale:Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents require adequate iron stores for effective
erythropoiesis; ferritin and transferrin saturation must be assessed and corrected if low. The
other labs are relevant to CKD but do not determine epoetin efficacy.
Q4.
A patient with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. After initial fluid
resuscitation, which insulin regimen is most appropriate?
A. Subcutaneous insulin glargine once daily B. IV regular insulin infusion titrated to
glucose
C. Subcutaneous insulin lispro every 6 D. IV insulin aspart bolus every 4 hours
hours
Correct: B - IV regular insulin infusion titrated to glucose
Rationale:DKA management requires a continuous IV regular insulin infusion to rapidly lower
glucose and suppress ketogenesis, with frequent monitoring. Subcutaneous regimens have
delayed absorption and are not titratable in acute DKA.
Q5.
A patient with a new diagnosis of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) has been
receiving unfractionated heparin. Which action is the priority?
A. Discontinue all heparin products B. Administer vitamin K to reverse heparin
immediately
C. Transfuse platelets to maintain count D. Switch to low-molecular-weight heparin
>50,000
Correct: A - Discontinue all heparin products immediately
Rationale:HIT is an immune-mediated reaction requiring immediate cessation of all heparin,
including flushes and LMWH, to prevent thrombosis. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin;
platelet transfusion is contraindicated unless bleeding; LMWH cross-reacts.
Q6.
A patient receiving chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia has a neutrophil count of
400/mm3 and a temperature of 38.3°C. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics B. Obtain blood cultures and wait for results
within 1 hour before antibiotics
Page 4
