,NUS 212 Proctored Clinical Judgment Exam | Health Assessment
Questions And Answers 2026/2027 Jersey College
Q1. During an initial assessment, which finding should the examiner
address first?
A) Chronic knee stiffness
B) New inspiratory stridor
C) Poor appetite for one week
D) Difficulty sleeping
Correct Answer: B) New inspiratory stridor
Rationale: Stridor can indicate critical upper-airway narrowing and requires
immediate assessment and intervention.
Q2. A patient's blood pressure is unexpectedly 78/44 mm Hg. The
patient is alert, denies dizziness, and the cuff is visibly too large.
What is the best next action?
A) Diagnose shock immediately
B) Document the measurement as final
C) Repeat the blood pressure using correctly sized equipment while
reassessing the patient
D) Ignore the reading because the patient has no symptoms
Correct Answer: C) Repeat the blood pressure using correctly sized
equipment while reassessing the patient
Rationale: Unexpected data obtained using questionable technique should
be validated before clinical conclusions are made.
Q3. Which finding is subjective data?
A) “I feel pressure in my chest when I walk uphill.”
B) Pulse 112/min
C) Bilateral ankle edema
D) Respiratory rate 26/min
Correct Answer: A) “I feel pressure in my chest when I walk uphill.”
Rationale: Subjective data consist of symptoms and experiences reported
by the patient.
Q4. Which action best demonstrates analysis of assessment cues?
,A) Recording every finding without connecting them
B) Completing the examination in alphabetical order
C) Selecting a diagnosis before obtaining a history
D) Linking fever, tachycardia, crackles, and low oxygen saturation as
potentially related findings
Correct Answer: D) Linking fever, tachycardia, crackles, and low oxygen
saturation as potentially related findings
Rationale: Analyzing cues involves identifying meaningful relationships
among assessment findings.
Q5. Which patient should receive a focused assessment rather than
a routine comprehensive assessment first?
A) A stable patient establishing care for the first time
B) A patient with sudden severe shortness of breath
C) A healthy adult requesting preventive screening
D) A patient attending an annual wellness visit
Correct Answer: B) A patient with sudden severe shortness of breath
Rationale: Acute potentially life-threatening symptoms require rapid
focused assessment before routine comprehensive data collection.
Q6. Which findings require prompt escalation? Select all that apply.
A) Oxygen saturation 82% with cyanosis
B) Sudden unilateral weakness
C) New stridor
D) Chronic painless scar
Correct Answer: A) Oxygen saturation 82% with cyanosis; B) Sudden
unilateral weakness; C) New stridor
Rationale: Severe hypoxemia, acute focal neurologic deficits, and airway
compromise are potentially life-threatening findings.
Q7. Which documentation entry is most appropriate?
A) “Patient is obviously exaggerating pain.”
B) “Patient appears lazy.”
C) “Patient reports abdominal pain 8/10 and guards the right lower quadrant
during palpation.”
D) “Patient probably has appendicitis.”
, Correct Answer: C) “Patient reports abdominal pain 8/10 and guards the right
lower quadrant during palpation.”
Rationale: Documentation should contain objective observations and
patient statements rather than unsupported judgments or diagnoses.
Q8. A patient speaks limited English and requires assessment of
new neurologic symptoms. Which action is most appropriate?
A) Use a qualified healthcare interpreter
B) Ask another patient to translate
C) Limit the examination to objective findings only
D) Ask a minor child to interpret
Correct Answer: A) Use a qualified healthcare interpreter
Rationale: Qualified interpretation supports accurate symptom assessment,
confidentiality, and patient participation.
CHAPTER 2 — RESPIRATORY AND CARDIOVASCULAR CLINICAL JUDGMENT
CASE STUDY 1
A 68-year-old patient reports worsening shortness of breath. Assessment
findings include respiratory rate 32/min, oxygen saturation 86%, use of
accessory muscles, temperature 38.7°C, and crackles over the right lower
lung.
Q9. Which finding represents the highest-priority cue?
A) Temperature 38.7°C
B) Age 68 years
C) Crackles at the right base
D) Oxygen saturation 86% with increased work of breathing
Correct Answer: D) Oxygen saturation 86% with increased work of breathing
Rationale: Significant hypoxemia accompanied by respiratory distress
represents the most immediate threat.
Q10. Which additional assessment would provide the most useful
information about respiratory status?
A) Assess breath sounds throughout both lungs and observe chest expansion
B) Assess bowel sounds
C) Measure calf circumference only
D) Test near vision
Questions And Answers 2026/2027 Jersey College
Q1. During an initial assessment, which finding should the examiner
address first?
A) Chronic knee stiffness
B) New inspiratory stridor
C) Poor appetite for one week
D) Difficulty sleeping
Correct Answer: B) New inspiratory stridor
Rationale: Stridor can indicate critical upper-airway narrowing and requires
immediate assessment and intervention.
Q2. A patient's blood pressure is unexpectedly 78/44 mm Hg. The
patient is alert, denies dizziness, and the cuff is visibly too large.
What is the best next action?
A) Diagnose shock immediately
B) Document the measurement as final
C) Repeat the blood pressure using correctly sized equipment while
reassessing the patient
D) Ignore the reading because the patient has no symptoms
Correct Answer: C) Repeat the blood pressure using correctly sized
equipment while reassessing the patient
Rationale: Unexpected data obtained using questionable technique should
be validated before clinical conclusions are made.
Q3. Which finding is subjective data?
A) “I feel pressure in my chest when I walk uphill.”
B) Pulse 112/min
C) Bilateral ankle edema
D) Respiratory rate 26/min
Correct Answer: A) “I feel pressure in my chest when I walk uphill.”
Rationale: Subjective data consist of symptoms and experiences reported
by the patient.
Q4. Which action best demonstrates analysis of assessment cues?
,A) Recording every finding without connecting them
B) Completing the examination in alphabetical order
C) Selecting a diagnosis before obtaining a history
D) Linking fever, tachycardia, crackles, and low oxygen saturation as
potentially related findings
Correct Answer: D) Linking fever, tachycardia, crackles, and low oxygen
saturation as potentially related findings
Rationale: Analyzing cues involves identifying meaningful relationships
among assessment findings.
Q5. Which patient should receive a focused assessment rather than
a routine comprehensive assessment first?
A) A stable patient establishing care for the first time
B) A patient with sudden severe shortness of breath
C) A healthy adult requesting preventive screening
D) A patient attending an annual wellness visit
Correct Answer: B) A patient with sudden severe shortness of breath
Rationale: Acute potentially life-threatening symptoms require rapid
focused assessment before routine comprehensive data collection.
Q6. Which findings require prompt escalation? Select all that apply.
A) Oxygen saturation 82% with cyanosis
B) Sudden unilateral weakness
C) New stridor
D) Chronic painless scar
Correct Answer: A) Oxygen saturation 82% with cyanosis; B) Sudden
unilateral weakness; C) New stridor
Rationale: Severe hypoxemia, acute focal neurologic deficits, and airway
compromise are potentially life-threatening findings.
Q7. Which documentation entry is most appropriate?
A) “Patient is obviously exaggerating pain.”
B) “Patient appears lazy.”
C) “Patient reports abdominal pain 8/10 and guards the right lower quadrant
during palpation.”
D) “Patient probably has appendicitis.”
, Correct Answer: C) “Patient reports abdominal pain 8/10 and guards the right
lower quadrant during palpation.”
Rationale: Documentation should contain objective observations and
patient statements rather than unsupported judgments or diagnoses.
Q8. A patient speaks limited English and requires assessment of
new neurologic symptoms. Which action is most appropriate?
A) Use a qualified healthcare interpreter
B) Ask another patient to translate
C) Limit the examination to objective findings only
D) Ask a minor child to interpret
Correct Answer: A) Use a qualified healthcare interpreter
Rationale: Qualified interpretation supports accurate symptom assessment,
confidentiality, and patient participation.
CHAPTER 2 — RESPIRATORY AND CARDIOVASCULAR CLINICAL JUDGMENT
CASE STUDY 1
A 68-year-old patient reports worsening shortness of breath. Assessment
findings include respiratory rate 32/min, oxygen saturation 86%, use of
accessory muscles, temperature 38.7°C, and crackles over the right lower
lung.
Q9. Which finding represents the highest-priority cue?
A) Temperature 38.7°C
B) Age 68 years
C) Crackles at the right base
D) Oxygen saturation 86% with increased work of breathing
Correct Answer: D) Oxygen saturation 86% with increased work of breathing
Rationale: Significant hypoxemia accompanied by respiratory distress
represents the most immediate threat.
Q10. Which additional assessment would provide the most useful
information about respiratory status?
A) Assess breath sounds throughout both lungs and observe chest expansion
B) Assess bowel sounds
C) Measure calf circumference only
D) Test near vision
