FAGD EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS
AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • Exams of Dentistry • Fellow of the Academy of General Dentistry
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AGD Standards & Protocols 2025-2026 • Evidence-Based General Dentistry • 200 Questions • Randomized Key • For Study Purposes Only
IMPORTANT NOTICE: This document is an independent study aid reflecting the Academy of General Dentistry (AGD) Fellowship examination content
outline, AGD Code of Ethics, ADA Standards, and evidence-based dentistry guidelines (2025-2026). It is NOT an actual, leaked, or reproduced AGD
examination and does not guarantee Fellowship. Verify current AGD requirements (500 CE hours, Mastership prerequisites, and exam format) before
testing.
Section 1: Brief Introduction
The Fellow of the Academy of General Dentistry (FAGD) examination validates advanced competency
across all disciplines of general dentistry, requiring 500 hours of AGD-approved continuing education
and a comprehensive written examination. This 200-question verified study guide simulates actual
exam conditions with clinical vignettes, diagnostic reasoning, and evidence-based treatment planning
aligned to 2025-2026 AGD standards.
Instructions: Select the single best answer for each clinical scenario. Correct answers are shown in bold cyan and are randomized across A–D
(50 each). Review rationales immediately after each item, noting ADA/AGD evidence and explaining distractors. Time allocation: ~60
seconds per item (≈ 3.3 hours total).
Section 2: The Complete Exam — 200 Questions with Rationales
1. A 32-year-old presents with a Class II mesio-occlusal carious lesion on tooth 19 extending 2 mm
below the CEJ distally with excellent isolation achieved. The most predictable direct restorative
material with acceptable marginal adaptation in this subgingival situation is:
A. Direct composite with no base despite moisture
B. Resin-modified glass ionomer (RMGI) base with composite overlay (open sandwich) or
deep margin elevation when isolation and matrix allow
C. Amalgam without bonding
D. Conventional glass ionomer alone
Rationale: AGD/ADA: Deep Class II below CEJ benefits from RMGI sandwich/deep margin elevation for
seal and biocompatibility when rubber dam/matrix isolation is achievable; conventional GI lacks wear
strength alone.
2. For a direct posterior composite, the incremental layer thickness for adequate polymerization with
a modern LED (1,200 mW/cm²) should be:
A. 10 mm increments
B. No incremental limit with any composite
C. 4-5 mm bulk without checking
FAGD EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS — AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • For Study Use Only — Not an Actual AGD
Examination
, D. ≤2 mm increments, light-cured 20 seconds per increment per manufacturer, verifying tip
close to surface
Rationale: ADA: 2 mm increments ensure adequate depth of cure (≤4 mm for verified bulk-fill only);
limiting thickness reduces polymerization shrinkage stress and ensures hardness.
3. A patient with generalized moderate attrition and erosion (GERD) requests esthetic full-mouth
rehabilitation. The restorative material with highest fracture toughness for posterior crowns with
limited interocclusal space (0.8 mm) is:
A. Monolithic zirconia (4Y or 5Y) with appropriate polishing and adjusted occlusion
B. Microfilled composite only
C. Conventional feldspathic porcelain
D. Unreinforced composite crowns
Rationale: Monolithic zirconia offers highest flexural strength (>800 MPa) and minimal thickness
tolerance, suitable for worn dentition; feldspathic fractures at <1.5 mm.
4. Adhesion of composite to dentin using a universal adhesive in self-etch mode on cut dentin requires:
A. No primer needed
B. 35% phosphoric acid on dentin for 30 seconds
C. Silane only
D. 10-MDP monomer chemical bonding to calcium with mild acidity (pH ~2.7) without over-
etching dentin
Rationale: Universal adhesives rely on 10-MDP bonding to hydroxyapatite; over-etching dentin
collapses collagen and reduces bond durably.
5. A 16-year-old with a deep occlusal caries approaching the pulp on 30, no spontaneous pain, positive
cold that subsides within 10 seconds, and radiograph shows radiolucency ~0.5 mm from pulp. The
most evidence-based management is:
A. Immediate complete caries excavation to pulp exposure and RCT
B. Selective (partial) caries removal leaving leathery dentin over pulp, followed by well-
sealed restoration and indirect pulp capping with calcium silicate
C. No treatment
D. Extraction
Rationale: ADA 2025: Selective caries removal preserves pulp vitality in vital asymptomatic deep
caries, reducing exposure risk; complete removal to hard dentin increases exposure.
FAGD EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS — AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • For Study Use Only — Not an Actual AGD
Examination
,6. Polymerization shrinkage stress in a Class I composite is best reduced by:
A. Placing one large 5 mm increment
B. Curing from a distance of 2 cm
C. Incremental placement with oblique layering, soft-start curing, and C-factor management
via liners
D. Not curing at all
Rationale: Oblique increments and reduced C-factor (ratio bonded/unbonded) lowers stress; soft-start
reduces polymerization rate stress.
7. Amalgam is still indicated in 2025-2026 when:
A. Front anterior composite is not possible
B. Never indicated
C. Large load-bearing posterior restoration where moisture control is compromised and
cost is a limiting factor, with patient accepting non-esthetic
D. Esthetic zone requiring shade match
Rationale: ADA: Amalgam remains acceptable for posterior load-bearing where isolation poor and
longevity/cost favors it, with informed consent about mercury.
8. A gold onlay preparation on 14 requires functional cusp capping. The minimum occlusal reduction
for cast gold is:
A. 0.5 mm for all cusps
B. No reduction needed
C. 1.0 mm for nonfunctional cusps and 1.5 mm for functional cusps with bevels
D. 3.0 mm for all surfaces
Rationale: ADA prosthodontic guidelines: gold onlay 1.0-1.5 mm ensures metal thickness against wear
without fracture.
9. Ceramic inlay/onlay cementation requires:
A. Glass ionomer without treatment
B. Hydrofluoric acid etch 4-5% 20 seconds (lithium disilicate), silanization, and resin
cement with isolated etch/bond of tooth
C. No silane needed
D. Zinc phosphate cement only
FAGD EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS — AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • For Study Use Only — Not an Actual AGD
Examination
, Rationale: Etchable ceramics (e.max) require HF + silane for chemical bond; zirconia requires MDP
primer/Air abrasion, not HF.
10. A patient reports postoperative sensitivity 2 weeks after composite in 19. Occlusion is correct,
radiograph shows overhang. The likely cause is:
A. Normal unavoidable sensitivity
B. No cause
C. Polymerization gap/microleakage or overhang-induced periodontal irritation or occlusal
trauma — diagnose, adjust, and monitor/pulp testing
D. Pulp necrosis always
Rationale: Post-op sensitivity linked to microleakage, occlusal interference, or overhang; AGD
recommends pulp vitality testing and correcting iatrogenic factors before endodontics.
11. The ferrule effect for a crown on an endodontically treated tooth requires:
A. Ferrule is irrelevant
B. Only 0.5 mm ferrule
C. 2 mm of circumferential sound tooth structure apical to core with 1 mm wall thickness for
fracture resistance
D. No ferrule needed if post present
Rationale: Evidence: 1.5-2 mm ferrule significantly reduces fracture of ETT; post does not substitute
for ferrule.
12. Dental composite filler content influences:
A. Filler only affects color
B. No mechanical properties
C. Higher filler vol% increases strength, wear resistance, and reduces polymerization
shrinkage
D. Lower filler always stronger
Rationale: Hybrid/nanofill 60-80 vol% filler improves modulus and wear vs microfill.
13. A Class V abfraction lesion at the cervical margin in a bruxer is ideally restored with:
A. Rigid microfilled composite without flex
B. No restoration
FAGD EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS — AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • For Study Use Only — Not an Actual AGD
Examination
VERIFIED ANSWERS
AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • Exams of Dentistry • Fellow of the Academy of General Dentistry
─────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
AGD Standards & Protocols 2025-2026 • Evidence-Based General Dentistry • 200 Questions • Randomized Key • For Study Purposes Only
IMPORTANT NOTICE: This document is an independent study aid reflecting the Academy of General Dentistry (AGD) Fellowship examination content
outline, AGD Code of Ethics, ADA Standards, and evidence-based dentistry guidelines (2025-2026). It is NOT an actual, leaked, or reproduced AGD
examination and does not guarantee Fellowship. Verify current AGD requirements (500 CE hours, Mastership prerequisites, and exam format) before
testing.
Section 1: Brief Introduction
The Fellow of the Academy of General Dentistry (FAGD) examination validates advanced competency
across all disciplines of general dentistry, requiring 500 hours of AGD-approved continuing education
and a comprehensive written examination. This 200-question verified study guide simulates actual
exam conditions with clinical vignettes, diagnostic reasoning, and evidence-based treatment planning
aligned to 2025-2026 AGD standards.
Instructions: Select the single best answer for each clinical scenario. Correct answers are shown in bold cyan and are randomized across A–D
(50 each). Review rationales immediately after each item, noting ADA/AGD evidence and explaining distractors. Time allocation: ~60
seconds per item (≈ 3.3 hours total).
Section 2: The Complete Exam — 200 Questions with Rationales
1. A 32-year-old presents with a Class II mesio-occlusal carious lesion on tooth 19 extending 2 mm
below the CEJ distally with excellent isolation achieved. The most predictable direct restorative
material with acceptable marginal adaptation in this subgingival situation is:
A. Direct composite with no base despite moisture
B. Resin-modified glass ionomer (RMGI) base with composite overlay (open sandwich) or
deep margin elevation when isolation and matrix allow
C. Amalgam without bonding
D. Conventional glass ionomer alone
Rationale: AGD/ADA: Deep Class II below CEJ benefits from RMGI sandwich/deep margin elevation for
seal and biocompatibility when rubber dam/matrix isolation is achievable; conventional GI lacks wear
strength alone.
2. For a direct posterior composite, the incremental layer thickness for adequate polymerization with
a modern LED (1,200 mW/cm²) should be:
A. 10 mm increments
B. No incremental limit with any composite
C. 4-5 mm bulk without checking
FAGD EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS — AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • For Study Use Only — Not an Actual AGD
Examination
, D. ≤2 mm increments, light-cured 20 seconds per increment per manufacturer, verifying tip
close to surface
Rationale: ADA: 2 mm increments ensure adequate depth of cure (≤4 mm for verified bulk-fill only);
limiting thickness reduces polymerization shrinkage stress and ensures hardness.
3. A patient with generalized moderate attrition and erosion (GERD) requests esthetic full-mouth
rehabilitation. The restorative material with highest fracture toughness for posterior crowns with
limited interocclusal space (0.8 mm) is:
A. Monolithic zirconia (4Y or 5Y) with appropriate polishing and adjusted occlusion
B. Microfilled composite only
C. Conventional feldspathic porcelain
D. Unreinforced composite crowns
Rationale: Monolithic zirconia offers highest flexural strength (>800 MPa) and minimal thickness
tolerance, suitable for worn dentition; feldspathic fractures at <1.5 mm.
4. Adhesion of composite to dentin using a universal adhesive in self-etch mode on cut dentin requires:
A. No primer needed
B. 35% phosphoric acid on dentin for 30 seconds
C. Silane only
D. 10-MDP monomer chemical bonding to calcium with mild acidity (pH ~2.7) without over-
etching dentin
Rationale: Universal adhesives rely on 10-MDP bonding to hydroxyapatite; over-etching dentin
collapses collagen and reduces bond durably.
5. A 16-year-old with a deep occlusal caries approaching the pulp on 30, no spontaneous pain, positive
cold that subsides within 10 seconds, and radiograph shows radiolucency ~0.5 mm from pulp. The
most evidence-based management is:
A. Immediate complete caries excavation to pulp exposure and RCT
B. Selective (partial) caries removal leaving leathery dentin over pulp, followed by well-
sealed restoration and indirect pulp capping with calcium silicate
C. No treatment
D. Extraction
Rationale: ADA 2025: Selective caries removal preserves pulp vitality in vital asymptomatic deep
caries, reducing exposure risk; complete removal to hard dentin increases exposure.
FAGD EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS — AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • For Study Use Only — Not an Actual AGD
Examination
,6. Polymerization shrinkage stress in a Class I composite is best reduced by:
A. Placing one large 5 mm increment
B. Curing from a distance of 2 cm
C. Incremental placement with oblique layering, soft-start curing, and C-factor management
via liners
D. Not curing at all
Rationale: Oblique increments and reduced C-factor (ratio bonded/unbonded) lowers stress; soft-start
reduces polymerization rate stress.
7. Amalgam is still indicated in 2025-2026 when:
A. Front anterior composite is not possible
B. Never indicated
C. Large load-bearing posterior restoration where moisture control is compromised and
cost is a limiting factor, with patient accepting non-esthetic
D. Esthetic zone requiring shade match
Rationale: ADA: Amalgam remains acceptable for posterior load-bearing where isolation poor and
longevity/cost favors it, with informed consent about mercury.
8. A gold onlay preparation on 14 requires functional cusp capping. The minimum occlusal reduction
for cast gold is:
A. 0.5 mm for all cusps
B. No reduction needed
C. 1.0 mm for nonfunctional cusps and 1.5 mm for functional cusps with bevels
D. 3.0 mm for all surfaces
Rationale: ADA prosthodontic guidelines: gold onlay 1.0-1.5 mm ensures metal thickness against wear
without fracture.
9. Ceramic inlay/onlay cementation requires:
A. Glass ionomer without treatment
B. Hydrofluoric acid etch 4-5% 20 seconds (lithium disilicate), silanization, and resin
cement with isolated etch/bond of tooth
C. No silane needed
D. Zinc phosphate cement only
FAGD EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS — AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • For Study Use Only — Not an Actual AGD
Examination
, Rationale: Etchable ceramics (e.max) require HF + silane for chemical bond; zirconia requires MDP
primer/Air abrasion, not HF.
10. A patient reports postoperative sensitivity 2 weeks after composite in 19. Occlusion is correct,
radiograph shows overhang. The likely cause is:
A. Normal unavoidable sensitivity
B. No cause
C. Polymerization gap/microleakage or overhang-induced periodontal irritation or occlusal
trauma — diagnose, adjust, and monitor/pulp testing
D. Pulp necrosis always
Rationale: Post-op sensitivity linked to microleakage, occlusal interference, or overhang; AGD
recommends pulp vitality testing and correcting iatrogenic factors before endodontics.
11. The ferrule effect for a crown on an endodontically treated tooth requires:
A. Ferrule is irrelevant
B. Only 0.5 mm ferrule
C. 2 mm of circumferential sound tooth structure apical to core with 1 mm wall thickness for
fracture resistance
D. No ferrule needed if post present
Rationale: Evidence: 1.5-2 mm ferrule significantly reduces fracture of ETT; post does not substitute
for ferrule.
12. Dental composite filler content influences:
A. Filler only affects color
B. No mechanical properties
C. Higher filler vol% increases strength, wear resistance, and reduces polymerization
shrinkage
D. Lower filler always stronger
Rationale: Hybrid/nanofill 60-80 vol% filler improves modulus and wear vs microfill.
13. A Class V abfraction lesion at the cervical margin in a bruxer is ideally restored with:
A. Rigid microfilled composite without flex
B. No restoration
FAGD EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS — AGD Fellowship Study Guide • 200 Questions • For Study Use Only — Not an Actual AGD
Examination
