NR 546 ADVANCED
PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM
REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
(LATEST), (A+ GUARANTEE). JUST
RELEASED
1. A patient experiencing acute dystonia after a first dose of Haloperidol requires immediate
intervention. Which medication should the nurse practitioner prescribe?
A. Benztropine
B. Propranolol
C. Lorazepam
D. Dantrolene
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Benztropine is an anticholinergic used to treat acute
extrapyramidal symptoms like dystonia by restoring the balance between dopamine and
acetylcholine in the nigrostriatal pathway.
2. Which dopamine pathway is associated with the negative symptoms of schizophrenia and
is often considered to have a ‘deficit’ of dopamine?
A. Mesolimbic pathway
,B. Nigrostriatal pathway
C. Mesocortical pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The mesocortical pathway is associated with negative symptoms
(apathy, withdrawal) when dopamine is low. Excessive dopamine in the mesolimbic
pathway causes positive symptoms.
3. Which antidepressant is contraindicated in a patient with a history of seizure disorders or
eating disorders due to an increased risk of lowering the seizure threshold?
A. Sertraline
B. Bupropion
C. Venlafaxine
D. Mirtazapine
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Bupropion is known to lower the seizure threshold, particularly
at high doses and in patients with electrolyte imbalances common in eating disorders.
4. A patient taking Lithium for Bipolar I Disorder presents with coarse tremors, ataxia, and
confusion. What is the most likely cause?
A. Serotonin Syndrome
, B. Extrapyramidal symptoms
C. Lithium toxicity
D. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Coarse tremors, ataxia, confusion, and slurred speech are signs
of Lithium toxicity, often occurring when levels exceed 1.5 mEq/L.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of typical (first-generation) antipsychotics?
A. Serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism
B. GABA-A receptor agonism
C. Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
D. Dopamine D2 receptor antagonism
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Typical antipsychotics primarily block D2 receptors in the brain,
which reduces positive symptoms but increases the risk of EPS.
6. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the ‘fight or flight’ response and is
regulated by SNRIs?
A. GABA
B. Norepinephrine
PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM
REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
(LATEST), (A+ GUARANTEE). JUST
RELEASED
1. A patient experiencing acute dystonia after a first dose of Haloperidol requires immediate
intervention. Which medication should the nurse practitioner prescribe?
A. Benztropine
B. Propranolol
C. Lorazepam
D. Dantrolene
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Benztropine is an anticholinergic used to treat acute
extrapyramidal symptoms like dystonia by restoring the balance between dopamine and
acetylcholine in the nigrostriatal pathway.
2. Which dopamine pathway is associated with the negative symptoms of schizophrenia and
is often considered to have a ‘deficit’ of dopamine?
A. Mesolimbic pathway
,B. Nigrostriatal pathway
C. Mesocortical pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The mesocortical pathway is associated with negative symptoms
(apathy, withdrawal) when dopamine is low. Excessive dopamine in the mesolimbic
pathway causes positive symptoms.
3. Which antidepressant is contraindicated in a patient with a history of seizure disorders or
eating disorders due to an increased risk of lowering the seizure threshold?
A. Sertraline
B. Bupropion
C. Venlafaxine
D. Mirtazapine
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Bupropion is known to lower the seizure threshold, particularly
at high doses and in patients with electrolyte imbalances common in eating disorders.
4. A patient taking Lithium for Bipolar I Disorder presents with coarse tremors, ataxia, and
confusion. What is the most likely cause?
A. Serotonin Syndrome
, B. Extrapyramidal symptoms
C. Lithium toxicity
D. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Coarse tremors, ataxia, confusion, and slurred speech are signs
of Lithium toxicity, often occurring when levels exceed 1.5 mEq/L.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of typical (first-generation) antipsychotics?
A. Serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism
B. GABA-A receptor agonism
C. Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
D. Dopamine D2 receptor antagonism
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Typical antipsychotics primarily block D2 receptors in the brain,
which reduces positive symptoms but increases the risk of EPS.
6. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the ‘fight or flight’ response and is
regulated by SNRIs?
A. GABA
B. Norepinephrine
