NR 546 ADVANCED
PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY FINAL
EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS (LATEST), (A+ GUARANTEE).
JUST RELEASED
1. Which mechanism of action is primarily responsible for the therapeutic delay observed in
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A. Immediate blockade of the serotonin transporter (SERT)
B. Immediate activation of postsynaptic 5-HT2 receptors
C. Acute increase in synaptic serotonin levels in the prefrontal cortex
D. Down-regulation and desensitization of 5-HT1A autoreceptors
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: While SERT blockade is immediate, the therapeutic effect is
delayed because it requires the desensitization of 5-HT1A autoreceptors, which allows the
neuron to increase its firing rate and release more serotonin into the synapse.
2. A patient taking Clozapine presents with an Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) of 900/mm³.
What is the most appropriate clinical action?
A. Continue the current dose and monitor ANC weekly
,B. Interrupt treatment, consult hematology, and monitor ANC daily
C. Increase the dose to manage potential psychosis recurrence
D. Switch the patient immediately to Olanzapine without washout
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: An ANC below 1000/mm³ constitutes severe neutropenia for
most patients on Clozapine, requiring treatment interruption and close hematological
monitoring according to the Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) guidelines.
3. Which mood stabilizer is most strongly associated with the risk of Stevens-Johnson
Syndrome (SJS), particularly when titrated too rapidly?
A. Lithium
B. Lamotrigine
C. Valproate
D. Gabapentin
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Lamotrigine carries a black box warning for serious rashes,
including SJS. The risk is minimized by following a slow titration schedule, which is
significantly affected by co-administration with Valproate.
, 4. A patient with Bipolar I disorder presents with fine hand tremors, polyuria, and polydipsia.
Which medication is most likely responsible?
A. Quetiapine
B. Risperidone
C. Lithium
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Lithium commonly causes fine hand tremors and inhibits
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) action on the kidneys, leading to polyuria and compensatory
polydipsia.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action for the medication Atomoxetine used in ADHD?
A. Selective Alpha-2A adrenergic agonist
B. Dopamine and Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (DNRI)
C. Selective Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (NRI)
D. Partial D2 receptor agonist
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Atomoxetine is a non-stimulant medication for ADHD that works
by selectively inhibiting the presynaptic norepinephrine transporter (NET).
PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY FINAL
EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS (LATEST), (A+ GUARANTEE).
JUST RELEASED
1. Which mechanism of action is primarily responsible for the therapeutic delay observed in
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A. Immediate blockade of the serotonin transporter (SERT)
B. Immediate activation of postsynaptic 5-HT2 receptors
C. Acute increase in synaptic serotonin levels in the prefrontal cortex
D. Down-regulation and desensitization of 5-HT1A autoreceptors
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: While SERT blockade is immediate, the therapeutic effect is
delayed because it requires the desensitization of 5-HT1A autoreceptors, which allows the
neuron to increase its firing rate and release more serotonin into the synapse.
2. A patient taking Clozapine presents with an Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) of 900/mm³.
What is the most appropriate clinical action?
A. Continue the current dose and monitor ANC weekly
,B. Interrupt treatment, consult hematology, and monitor ANC daily
C. Increase the dose to manage potential psychosis recurrence
D. Switch the patient immediately to Olanzapine without washout
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: An ANC below 1000/mm³ constitutes severe neutropenia for
most patients on Clozapine, requiring treatment interruption and close hematological
monitoring according to the Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) guidelines.
3. Which mood stabilizer is most strongly associated with the risk of Stevens-Johnson
Syndrome (SJS), particularly when titrated too rapidly?
A. Lithium
B. Lamotrigine
C. Valproate
D. Gabapentin
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Lamotrigine carries a black box warning for serious rashes,
including SJS. The risk is minimized by following a slow titration schedule, which is
significantly affected by co-administration with Valproate.
, 4. A patient with Bipolar I disorder presents with fine hand tremors, polyuria, and polydipsia.
Which medication is most likely responsible?
A. Quetiapine
B. Risperidone
C. Lithium
D. Carbamazepine
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Lithium commonly causes fine hand tremors and inhibits
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) action on the kidneys, leading to polyuria and compensatory
polydipsia.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action for the medication Atomoxetine used in ADHD?
A. Selective Alpha-2A adrenergic agonist
B. Dopamine and Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (DNRI)
C. Selective Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (NRI)
D. Partial D2 receptor agonist
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Atomoxetine is a non-stimulant medication for ADHD that works
by selectively inhibiting the presynaptic norepinephrine transporter (NET).
