NSG 3130 EXAM 4 ACTUAL 2026/2027 HIGH YIELD PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE ACCURATE EXAM
COMPLETE REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS) CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION 2026
EDITION |GUARANTEED PASS A+ |JUST RELEASED NSG
3130 EXAM 4 |INSTANT PDF ACCESS
1. A client's hemodynamic readings show a central venous pressure
(CVP) of 7 mm Hg and a pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
of 17 mm Hg. Which clinical signs are most likely to be present?
A. Decreased urine output and peripheral edema
B. Bilateral crackles in lungs and jugular vein distension (Correct
Answer)
C. Dry cough and diminished breath sounds
D. Hypotension and tachycardia
Rationale: Elevated PAWP and CVP suggest volume overload/heart
failure affecting both left and right sides. This leads to pulmonary
congestion (crackles) and venous congestion (JVD).
,2. A postpartum nurse is assessing the vital signs of a client who
delivered a healthy newborn 4 hours ago. The nurse notes that the
mother's temperature is 100.2°F. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Increase hydration by encouraging oral fluids (Correct Answer)
B. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed
C. Apply a cooling blanket to the client
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Rationale: Temperatures up to 100.4°F in the first 24 hours after
birth are often related to the dehydrating effects of labor. The most
appropriate action is to increase hydration by encouraging oral
fluids.
3. The physician has prescribed Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide) for a
client with nephrotic syndrome. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Limit the client's fluid intake to prevent edema.
B. Administer the medication with a full glass of milk.
C. Monitor the client's blood glucose levels closely.
D. Encourage the client to drink extra fluids. (Correct Answer)
,Rationale: Cytoxan can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect;
increasing fluid intake helps dilute the urine and reduce bladder
irritation.
4. The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a
diagnosis of appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours.
The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and
begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is
distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the most
appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Apply a heating pad to the abdomen to relieve pain.
B. Place the client in a supine position with legs elevated.
C. Notify the health care provider (HCP). (Correct Answer)
D. Administer an antiemetic to control vomiting.
Rationale: Based on the signs and symptoms, the nurse should
suspect peritonitis and notify the HCP. Heat should never be applied
to the abdomen of a client with suspected appendicitis due to the risk
of rupture.
5. A client who has undergone cardiac catheterization via the
femoral artery reports increasing groin pain and swelling. What
should the nurse assess first?
, A. Apply a cold compress to the groin area and elevate the head of
the bed.
B. Assess the femoral access site for hematoma, pulsation, and bruit.
(Correct Answer)
C. Administer the prescribed analgesic.
D. Encourage the client to ambulate to relieve the pain.
Rationale: Increasing groin pain and swelling after cardiac
catheterization may indicate a hematoma or pseudoaneurysm. The
priority is to assess the site for these complications.
6. What is the primary distinction between palliative care and
hospice care for a patient with a serious illness?
A. Palliative care is only provided in inpatient settings, while hospice
care is provided at home.
B. Palliative care can be delivered alongside curative treatment,
while hospice care focuses exclusively on comfort when curative
treatments have ceased. (Correct Answer)
C. Palliative care is for patients with cancer, while hospice care is for
patients with all other terminal illnesses.
D. Palliative care is provided by physicians, while hospice care is
provided by nurses.
QUESTIONS AND STUDY GUIDE ACCURATE EXAM
COMPLETE REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS) CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION 2026
EDITION |GUARANTEED PASS A+ |JUST RELEASED NSG
3130 EXAM 4 |INSTANT PDF ACCESS
1. A client's hemodynamic readings show a central venous pressure
(CVP) of 7 mm Hg and a pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
of 17 mm Hg. Which clinical signs are most likely to be present?
A. Decreased urine output and peripheral edema
B. Bilateral crackles in lungs and jugular vein distension (Correct
Answer)
C. Dry cough and diminished breath sounds
D. Hypotension and tachycardia
Rationale: Elevated PAWP and CVP suggest volume overload/heart
failure affecting both left and right sides. This leads to pulmonary
congestion (crackles) and venous congestion (JVD).
,2. A postpartum nurse is assessing the vital signs of a client who
delivered a healthy newborn 4 hours ago. The nurse notes that the
mother's temperature is 100.2°F. Which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Increase hydration by encouraging oral fluids (Correct Answer)
B. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed
C. Apply a cooling blanket to the client
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Rationale: Temperatures up to 100.4°F in the first 24 hours after
birth are often related to the dehydrating effects of labor. The most
appropriate action is to increase hydration by encouraging oral
fluids.
3. The physician has prescribed Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide) for a
client with nephrotic syndrome. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Limit the client's fluid intake to prevent edema.
B. Administer the medication with a full glass of milk.
C. Monitor the client's blood glucose levels closely.
D. Encourage the client to drink extra fluids. (Correct Answer)
,Rationale: Cytoxan can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a side effect;
increasing fluid intake helps dilute the urine and reduce bladder
irritation.
4. The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a
diagnosis of appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours.
The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and
begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is
distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the most
appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Apply a heating pad to the abdomen to relieve pain.
B. Place the client in a supine position with legs elevated.
C. Notify the health care provider (HCP). (Correct Answer)
D. Administer an antiemetic to control vomiting.
Rationale: Based on the signs and symptoms, the nurse should
suspect peritonitis and notify the HCP. Heat should never be applied
to the abdomen of a client with suspected appendicitis due to the risk
of rupture.
5. A client who has undergone cardiac catheterization via the
femoral artery reports increasing groin pain and swelling. What
should the nurse assess first?
, A. Apply a cold compress to the groin area and elevate the head of
the bed.
B. Assess the femoral access site for hematoma, pulsation, and bruit.
(Correct Answer)
C. Administer the prescribed analgesic.
D. Encourage the client to ambulate to relieve the pain.
Rationale: Increasing groin pain and swelling after cardiac
catheterization may indicate a hematoma or pseudoaneurysm. The
priority is to assess the site for these complications.
6. What is the primary distinction between palliative care and
hospice care for a patient with a serious illness?
A. Palliative care is only provided in inpatient settings, while hospice
care is provided at home.
B. Palliative care can be delivered alongside curative treatment,
while hospice care focuses exclusively on comfort when curative
treatments have ceased. (Correct Answer)
C. Palliative care is for patients with cancer, while hospice care is for
patients with all other terminal illnesses.
D. Palliative care is provided by physicians, while hospice care is
provided by nurses.
