,NUR 204 Proctored PrepU Exam Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Questions And Answers 2026/2027 Jersey College
Q1. A client at 30 weeks reports becoming dizzy whenever lying flat
for several minutes. Which nursing intervention is most
appropriate?
A) Place the client in a lateral position
B) Elevate both legs while keeping the client supine
C) Encourage rapid ambulation
D) Restrict oral fluid intake
Correct Answer: A) Place the client in a lateral position
Rationale: The gravid uterus can compress the inferior vena cava while the
client is supine, decreasing venous return and cardiac output. Lateral
positioning relieves this compression.
Q2. Which prenatal finding requires the most immediate follow-up?
A) Mild dependent ankle edema in the evening
B) Urinary frequency without dysuria
C) Severe headache accompanied by visual disturbances
D) Increased vaginal leukorrhea without odor
Correct Answer: C) Severe headache accompanied by visual disturbances
Rationale: Severe headache and visual changes can indicate severe
preeclampsia and require prompt evaluation.
Q3. Which finding is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Fetal cardiac activity detected by the examiner
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Breast tenderness
Correct Answer: B) Fetal cardiac activity detected by the examiner
Rationale: Positive signs directly demonstrate the presence of a fetus.
Amenorrhea, nausea, and breast changes can occur for reasons unrelated to
pregnancy.
Q4. A pregnant client has blood type O negative and a negative
antibody screen. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate
later in pregnancy if no sensitizing event occurs earlier?
,A) Rubella vaccine at 28 weeks
B) Magnesium sulfate prophylaxis
C) Rh(D) immune globulin prophylaxis
D) Daily aspirin for Rh incompatibility
Correct Answer: C) Rh(D) immune globulin prophylaxis
Rationale: Rh immune globulin helps prevent an unsensitized Rh-negative
client from developing anti-D antibodies after exposure to Rh-positive fetal
erythrocytes.
Q5. Which maternal physiologic change explains the development of
physiologic anemia during pregnancy?
A) Red blood cell destruction increases dramatically
B) Plasma volume increases more than red blood cell mass
C) Maternal iron absorption stops
D) Blood volume decreases throughout pregnancy
Correct Answer: B) Plasma volume increases more than red blood cell mass
Rationale: Pregnancy produces hemodilution because plasma volume
expands proportionally more than red blood cell mass.
Q6. Which teaching should the nurse provide about fetal movement
monitoring?
A) “A sudden decrease from your baby's usual movement pattern should be
evaluated.”
B) “Fetal movement normally disappears after 32 weeks.”
C) “You should expect exactly the same number of movements every hour.”
D) “Movement patterns have no relationship to fetal well-being.”
Correct Answer: A) “A sudden decrease from your baby's usual movement
pattern should be evaluated.”
Rationale: A meaningful decrease from the fetus's usual activity pattern
may indicate compromise and warrants assessment.
Q7. A pregnant client at 26 weeks has a fundal height of 20 cm on
repeated measurements. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
A) This always indicates multiple gestation
B) The measurement is expected at 26 weeks
C) Further evaluation for incorrect dates, growth restriction, or altered fluid
, volume may be needed
D) Fundal height has no value after 20 weeks
Correct Answer: C) Further evaluation for incorrect dates, growth restriction,
or altered fluid volume may be needed
Rationale: Between approximately 20 and 36 weeks, fundal height
generally approximates gestational age in centimeters. A persistent
discrepancy warrants further evaluation.
Q8. Which statement by a pregnant client taking an iron supplement
indicates correct understanding?
A) “I should take it with my calcium supplement.”
B) “Taking it with vitamin C may improve absorption.”
C) “Black stools always indicate gastrointestinal bleeding.”
D) “I should stop the supplement if constipation occurs.”
Correct Answer: B) “Taking it with vitamin C may improve absorption.”
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances nonheme iron absorption. Calcium can
interfere with absorption, and dark stools are a common effect of oral iron.
Q9. A client at 10 weeks reports persistent vomiting, a 4-kg weight
loss, and inability to retain fluids. Which finding would support
hyperemesis gravidarum?
A) Ketonuria and dehydration
B) Increased appetite
C) Polyuria with dilute urine
D) Excessive fetal movement
Correct Answer: A) Ketonuria and dehydration
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum can cause significant caloric
deprivation, ketosis, dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and weight loss.
Q10. Which prenatal laboratory result requires follow-up because it
indicates lack of immunity?
A) Positive rubella IgG immunity
B) Negative hepatitis B surface antigen
C) Negative rubella immunity titer
D) Normal hemoglobin electrophoresis
Correct Answer: C) Negative rubella immunity titer
Questions And Answers 2026/2027 Jersey College
Q1. A client at 30 weeks reports becoming dizzy whenever lying flat
for several minutes. Which nursing intervention is most
appropriate?
A) Place the client in a lateral position
B) Elevate both legs while keeping the client supine
C) Encourage rapid ambulation
D) Restrict oral fluid intake
Correct Answer: A) Place the client in a lateral position
Rationale: The gravid uterus can compress the inferior vena cava while the
client is supine, decreasing venous return and cardiac output. Lateral
positioning relieves this compression.
Q2. Which prenatal finding requires the most immediate follow-up?
A) Mild dependent ankle edema in the evening
B) Urinary frequency without dysuria
C) Severe headache accompanied by visual disturbances
D) Increased vaginal leukorrhea without odor
Correct Answer: C) Severe headache accompanied by visual disturbances
Rationale: Severe headache and visual changes can indicate severe
preeclampsia and require prompt evaluation.
Q3. Which finding is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Fetal cardiac activity detected by the examiner
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Breast tenderness
Correct Answer: B) Fetal cardiac activity detected by the examiner
Rationale: Positive signs directly demonstrate the presence of a fetus.
Amenorrhea, nausea, and breast changes can occur for reasons unrelated to
pregnancy.
Q4. A pregnant client has blood type O negative and a negative
antibody screen. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate
later in pregnancy if no sensitizing event occurs earlier?
,A) Rubella vaccine at 28 weeks
B) Magnesium sulfate prophylaxis
C) Rh(D) immune globulin prophylaxis
D) Daily aspirin for Rh incompatibility
Correct Answer: C) Rh(D) immune globulin prophylaxis
Rationale: Rh immune globulin helps prevent an unsensitized Rh-negative
client from developing anti-D antibodies after exposure to Rh-positive fetal
erythrocytes.
Q5. Which maternal physiologic change explains the development of
physiologic anemia during pregnancy?
A) Red blood cell destruction increases dramatically
B) Plasma volume increases more than red blood cell mass
C) Maternal iron absorption stops
D) Blood volume decreases throughout pregnancy
Correct Answer: B) Plasma volume increases more than red blood cell mass
Rationale: Pregnancy produces hemodilution because plasma volume
expands proportionally more than red blood cell mass.
Q6. Which teaching should the nurse provide about fetal movement
monitoring?
A) “A sudden decrease from your baby's usual movement pattern should be
evaluated.”
B) “Fetal movement normally disappears after 32 weeks.”
C) “You should expect exactly the same number of movements every hour.”
D) “Movement patterns have no relationship to fetal well-being.”
Correct Answer: A) “A sudden decrease from your baby's usual movement
pattern should be evaluated.”
Rationale: A meaningful decrease from the fetus's usual activity pattern
may indicate compromise and warrants assessment.
Q7. A pregnant client at 26 weeks has a fundal height of 20 cm on
repeated measurements. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
A) This always indicates multiple gestation
B) The measurement is expected at 26 weeks
C) Further evaluation for incorrect dates, growth restriction, or altered fluid
, volume may be needed
D) Fundal height has no value after 20 weeks
Correct Answer: C) Further evaluation for incorrect dates, growth restriction,
or altered fluid volume may be needed
Rationale: Between approximately 20 and 36 weeks, fundal height
generally approximates gestational age in centimeters. A persistent
discrepancy warrants further evaluation.
Q8. Which statement by a pregnant client taking an iron supplement
indicates correct understanding?
A) “I should take it with my calcium supplement.”
B) “Taking it with vitamin C may improve absorption.”
C) “Black stools always indicate gastrointestinal bleeding.”
D) “I should stop the supplement if constipation occurs.”
Correct Answer: B) “Taking it with vitamin C may improve absorption.”
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances nonheme iron absorption. Calcium can
interfere with absorption, and dark stools are a common effect of oral iron.
Q9. A client at 10 weeks reports persistent vomiting, a 4-kg weight
loss, and inability to retain fluids. Which finding would support
hyperemesis gravidarum?
A) Ketonuria and dehydration
B) Increased appetite
C) Polyuria with dilute urine
D) Excessive fetal movement
Correct Answer: A) Ketonuria and dehydration
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum can cause significant caloric
deprivation, ketosis, dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, and weight loss.
Q10. Which prenatal laboratory result requires follow-up because it
indicates lack of immunity?
A) Positive rubella IgG immunity
B) Negative hepatitis B surface antigen
C) Negative rubella immunity titer
D) Normal hemoglobin electrophoresis
Correct Answer: C) Negative rubella immunity titer
