ATI 2026 Fundamentals Proctored Exam,
ATI Fundamentals Retake
Chapter 1: Safety and Infection Control
1. A charge nurse receives handoff on four newly admitted clients. Based on
priority-setting frameworks, which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with heart failure reporting mild bilateral ankle edema after missing
one dose of furosemide
B. A client with diabetes mellitus whose blood glucose is 278 mg/dL before lunch
C. A client with COPD who suddenly becomes restless, has audible wheezing, and
an oxygen saturation of 84% despite prescribed oxygen therapy
D. A client scheduled for discharge who requests additional education about
prescribed medications
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using the ABC priority framework, impaired airway and
breathing take precedence over all other concerns. Sudden hypoxemia, wheezing,
and restlessness indicate acute respiratory compromise requiring immediate
assessment and intervention. Mild edema (A) requires assessment but is not
immediately life-threatening. Hyperglycemia (B) is important but less urgent than
severe hypoxemia. Discharge teaching (D) can safely be delayed while the
unstable client is managed.
2. A nurse is preparing to care for a client who has Clostridioides difficile. Which
type of precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Contact precautions
D. Protective environment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: C. difficile is transmitted through the fecal-oral route via
,spores, requiring contact precautions. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are not
effective against C. difficile spores; soap and water must be used. Airborne
precautions are for measles, varicella, and tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are
for meningitis, pertussis, and influenza. A protective environment is for
immunocompromised clients.
3. A nurse is admitting a client who has rubella. Which type of transmission-
based precautions should the nurse initiate?
A. Droplet
B. Airborne
C. Contact
D. Standard
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rubella (German measles) is transmitted through large-particle
droplets and requires droplet precautions. Airborne precautions are required for
measles (rubeola), varicella, and tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for
organisms spread by direct or indirect contact, such as C. difficile and MRSA.
Standard precautions apply to all clients but are not sufficient alone for rubella.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which
action is the priority to reduce the client's risk of developing a healthcare-
associated infection?
A. Wipe down the client's bedside table with an antiseptic wipe
B. Conduct informal audits of medical records
C. Perform hand hygiene
D. Instruct the client on ways to reduce the risk for infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: According to evidence-based practice, hand hygiene among
medical professionals, clients, and visitors is the single most important
intervention to reduce the risk of healthcare-associated infections. Cleaning the
bedside table and client education are important but secondary to hand hygiene.
,5. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile procedure. Which of the following
actions indicates a break in sterile technique?
A. The nurse holds sterile items above waist level
B. The nurse's sterile gloves touch the sterile drape
C. The nurse turns away from the sterile field to answer a question
D. The nurse opens the sterile package away from the body
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Turning away from a sterile field is a break in technique
because the nurse cannot visualize the field and microorganisms from the nurse's
back or clothing may contaminate the field. Sterile items must be held above
waist level, which is considered clean. Sterile gloves touching the sterile drape is
acceptable because both are sterile. Opening packages away from the body
prevents contamination.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for suicide. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client on round-the-clock surveillance
B. Remove objects from the room that the client could use to harm themselves
C. Search items brought into the client's room by visitors
D. Refrain from asking the client if they intend to harm themselves
E. Screen the client for suicidal ideations
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: The nurse should place the client on round-the-clock
surveillance, remove objects that could be used for self-harm, search visitor
items, and screen for suicidal ideations. Asking directly about intent is appropriate
and necessary; refraining from asking (D) is incorrect and dangerous.
, 7. A nurse is checking a client's allergy bracelet before administering a
medication and finds the client is allergic to that medication. The nurse does not
administer the medication. This is an example of which unexpected event?
A. Near-miss event
B. Client safety event
C. Adverse event
D. Sentinel event
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A near-miss event is an error that could have harmed the client
but was caught and avoided. The nurse noted the allergy before administration,
preventing harm. An adverse event results in harm. A sentinel event is an
unexpected occurrence involving death or serious injury. A client safety event is a
broader term.
8. A nurse is assessing a client's risk for falls. Which of the following factors
places the client at highest risk?
A. Age 45 with well-controlled hypertension
B. History of a fall within the past 3 months
C. Use of a cane for ambulation
D. Mild visual impairment corrected with glasses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A history of a fall within the past 3 months is one of the
strongest predictors of future falls. Age alone, use of an assistive device, and
corrected visual impairment are risk factors but are less predictive than a recent
fall history.
9. A nurse is instructing a client on home safety measures. Which statement by
the client indicates understanding?
A. "I will set my water heater to 140°F to kill bacteria."
B. "I will place a rubber mat in my bathtub."
ATI Fundamentals Retake
Chapter 1: Safety and Infection Control
1. A charge nurse receives handoff on four newly admitted clients. Based on
priority-setting frameworks, which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with heart failure reporting mild bilateral ankle edema after missing
one dose of furosemide
B. A client with diabetes mellitus whose blood glucose is 278 mg/dL before lunch
C. A client with COPD who suddenly becomes restless, has audible wheezing, and
an oxygen saturation of 84% despite prescribed oxygen therapy
D. A client scheduled for discharge who requests additional education about
prescribed medications
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using the ABC priority framework, impaired airway and
breathing take precedence over all other concerns. Sudden hypoxemia, wheezing,
and restlessness indicate acute respiratory compromise requiring immediate
assessment and intervention. Mild edema (A) requires assessment but is not
immediately life-threatening. Hyperglycemia (B) is important but less urgent than
severe hypoxemia. Discharge teaching (D) can safely be delayed while the
unstable client is managed.
2. A nurse is preparing to care for a client who has Clostridioides difficile. Which
type of precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Contact precautions
D. Protective environment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: C. difficile is transmitted through the fecal-oral route via
,spores, requiring contact precautions. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are not
effective against C. difficile spores; soap and water must be used. Airborne
precautions are for measles, varicella, and tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are
for meningitis, pertussis, and influenza. A protective environment is for
immunocompromised clients.
3. A nurse is admitting a client who has rubella. Which type of transmission-
based precautions should the nurse initiate?
A. Droplet
B. Airborne
C. Contact
D. Standard
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rubella (German measles) is transmitted through large-particle
droplets and requires droplet precautions. Airborne precautions are required for
measles (rubeola), varicella, and tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for
organisms spread by direct or indirect contact, such as C. difficile and MRSA.
Standard precautions apply to all clients but are not sufficient alone for rubella.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which
action is the priority to reduce the client's risk of developing a healthcare-
associated infection?
A. Wipe down the client's bedside table with an antiseptic wipe
B. Conduct informal audits of medical records
C. Perform hand hygiene
D. Instruct the client on ways to reduce the risk for infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: According to evidence-based practice, hand hygiene among
medical professionals, clients, and visitors is the single most important
intervention to reduce the risk of healthcare-associated infections. Cleaning the
bedside table and client education are important but secondary to hand hygiene.
,5. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile procedure. Which of the following
actions indicates a break in sterile technique?
A. The nurse holds sterile items above waist level
B. The nurse's sterile gloves touch the sterile drape
C. The nurse turns away from the sterile field to answer a question
D. The nurse opens the sterile package away from the body
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Turning away from a sterile field is a break in technique
because the nurse cannot visualize the field and microorganisms from the nurse's
back or clothing may contaminate the field. Sterile items must be held above
waist level, which is considered clean. Sterile gloves touching the sterile drape is
acceptable because both are sterile. Opening packages away from the body
prevents contamination.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for suicide. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client on round-the-clock surveillance
B. Remove objects from the room that the client could use to harm themselves
C. Search items brought into the client's room by visitors
D. Refrain from asking the client if they intend to harm themselves
E. Screen the client for suicidal ideations
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: The nurse should place the client on round-the-clock
surveillance, remove objects that could be used for self-harm, search visitor
items, and screen for suicidal ideations. Asking directly about intent is appropriate
and necessary; refraining from asking (D) is incorrect and dangerous.
, 7. A nurse is checking a client's allergy bracelet before administering a
medication and finds the client is allergic to that medication. The nurse does not
administer the medication. This is an example of which unexpected event?
A. Near-miss event
B. Client safety event
C. Adverse event
D. Sentinel event
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A near-miss event is an error that could have harmed the client
but was caught and avoided. The nurse noted the allergy before administration,
preventing harm. An adverse event results in harm. A sentinel event is an
unexpected occurrence involving death or serious injury. A client safety event is a
broader term.
8. A nurse is assessing a client's risk for falls. Which of the following factors
places the client at highest risk?
A. Age 45 with well-controlled hypertension
B. History of a fall within the past 3 months
C. Use of a cane for ambulation
D. Mild visual impairment corrected with glasses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A history of a fall within the past 3 months is one of the
strongest predictors of future falls. Age alone, use of an assistive device, and
corrected visual impairment are risk factors but are less predictive than a recent
fall history.
9. A nurse is instructing a client on home safety measures. Which statement by
the client indicates understanding?
A. "I will set my water heater to 140°F to kill bacteria."
B. "I will place a rubber mat in my bathtub."
