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AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Questions & Revised Correct Answers | AORN Guidelines Aligned | 100% Guarantee Pass - A+ Graded

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Pass the AORN Periop 101 Final Exam on your first attempt with this complete 2026/2027 guide featuring expected questions and revised correct answers. This A+ Graded resource covers all Periop 101 domains including aseptic technique, surgical instrumentation, patient positioning, sterilization and disinfection, surgical pharmacology, anesthesia considerations, and perioperative patient safety. Each answer is carefully verified and aligned with the latest AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice (2026/2027 Edition). Comprehensive rationales reinforce clinical reasoning and evidence-based practice. Perfect for perioperative nursing students and surgical nurses seeking certification. With our 100% Guarantee Pass, you can confidently prepare for your AORN Periop 101 Final Exam. Download your complete Q&A guide instantly!

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AORN Periop 101 Final Exam - Questions and Revised Correct Answers (2026/2027) 175 Questions - 100% Guarantee Pass




AORN Periop 101 Final Exam
Questions and Revised Correct Answers ()
100% Guarantee Pass - 175 Comprehensive Questions


Aligned with AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice (2026-2027 Edition) | Designed for AORN Periop 101 Final Examination
Preparation
Cognitive Distribution: 30% Recall | 50% Application | 20% Analysis | Question Style: 75% Scenario-Based | 25% Direct Recall




SECTION 1: PERIOPERATIVE PATIENT ASSESSMENT AND PLANNING

Preoperative Assessment, Patient Interview, Chart Review, Informed Consent, and Care Planning

Q1: During the preoperative patient interview, a 67-year-old male scheduled for a transurethral resection of
the prostate (TURP) informs the perioperative nurse that he takes 325 mg of aspirin daily as prescribed by his
cardiologist following a drug-eluting stent placement 8 months ago. The patient's surgeon has not addressed
the aspirin therapy. Which action by the perioperative nurse best reflects AORN's recommendation regarding
perioperative medication reconciliation and patient advocacy?
A. Proceed with the surgical schedule and document the patient's medication in the perioperative record only.
B. Immediately contact the surgeon and anesthesia professional to clarify whether aspirin should be held, and
ensure the cardiology service is consulted before proceeding with surgery. [CORRECT]
C. Instruct the patient to stop taking aspirin 5 days before surgery without consulting the prescribing physician.
D. Apply a thromboembolic deterrent (TED) hose and proceed, since aspirin does not increase surgical bleeding risk.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AORN's Guideline for Perioperative Patient Assessment (2026) and the Guideline for Care of the Patient
Receiving Antiplatelet or Anticoagulant Therapy emphasize that the perioperative RN must perform medication
reconciliation and escalate discrepancies among prescribing providers. Because aspirin increases bleeding risk and abrupt
discontinuation after stent placement risks stent thrombosis, only the cardiologist and surgeon collaboratively can decide to
hold or continue the medication. Holding aspirin unilaterally (C) is unsafe, and proceeding without clarification (A) or
minimizing the risk (D) violates the perioperative nurse's role as patient advocate and the AORN standard for
interdisciplinary communication.




Page 1 | Aligned with AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice (2026/2027)

,AORN Periop 101 Final Exam - Questions and Revised Correct Answers (2026/2027) 175 Questions - 100% Guarantee Pass



Q2: A perioperative nurse is reviewing the chart of a 54-year-old female scheduled for an elective laparoscopic
cholecystectomy. The patient's most recent serum potassium level, drawn 6 days ago, is 3.0 mEq/L (reference
range 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). The patient reports taking her prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily as ordered. The
anesthesia provider has not yet evaluated the patient. According to AORN's Guideline for Perioperative
Patient Assessment and the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification
System, what is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Document the abnormal laboratory value and proceed with surgical preparation, since the surgeon has already
cleared the patient for surgery.
B. Apply a sequential compression device and continue with routine preoperative care; hypokalemia is not
life-threatening in the surgical setting.
C. Notify the anesthesia professional and surgeon of the abnormal potassium value, recognize this as a
potentially life-threatening electrolyte disturbance that affects cardiac conduction, and advocate for treatment
or further evaluation before induction of anesthesia. [CORRECT]
D. Administer oral potassium replacement per the standing postoperative orders to correct the deficit before the
patient enters the OR.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Per AORN's Guideline for Perioperative Patient Assessment (2026), the circulating nurse must verify laboratory
values, identify abnormalities affecting anesthetic management, and communicate findings to the anesthesia professional
and surgeon. Hypokalemia of 3.0 mEq/L prolongs the QT interval and predisposes to perioperative dysrhythmias under
general anesthesia. Recognizing this finding and advocating for treatment (C) is the priority. Documenting and proceeding
(A) ignores a potentially lethal risk. SCDs (B) address thromboembolism, not electrolyte abnormalities. Administering
potassium (D) requires a provider order and would be a medication administration error.

Q3: A 42-year-old Jehovah's Witness patient presents for an elective total abdominal hysterectomy. During
the preoperative interview, the patient hands the perioperative nurse a signed, notarized document refusing
all blood products, including packed red blood cells, fresh frozen plasma, platelets, and whole blood, even in a
life-threatening emergency. The surgeon is aware and agrees to use cell salvage and acute normovolemic
hemodilution. What is the most appropriate documentation practice for this scenario?
A. Document the patient's verbal refusal in the perioperative record only; written refusal forms are not required
because the surgeon is aware.
B. Place the original signed refusal document in the patient's chart, ensure a copy is attached to the
perioperative record, verify that the anesthesia professional and surgeon acknowledge the directive in writing,
and confirm the patient's understanding of risks including death from hemorrhage. [CORRECT]
C. Document only the surgical team's plan for cell salvage, since the patient's refusal is implied by her religious
affiliation.
D. Photocopy the refusal and give it to a family member for safekeeping; the perioperative record does not need to
contain the document.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AORN's Guideline for Perioperative Patient Assessment (2026) and the AORN Position Statement on Patient
Rights specify that informed consent or refusal must be documented in writing, with the original placed in the medical
record and a copy in the perioperative record. The anesthesia professional, surgeon, and patient must all acknowledge the
directive to ensure consistency of care across the perioperative continuum. Verbal documentation alone (A) is insufficient
for legal and ethical protection. Religious affiliation alone (C) does not equal a documented refusal. Family custody of the
document (D) prevents the surgical team from accessing critical information during an emergency.




Page 2 | Aligned with AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice (2026/2027)

,AORN Periop 101 Final Exam - Questions and Revised Correct Answers (2026/2027) 175 Questions - 100% Guarantee Pass



Q4: A perioperative nurse is performing a preoperative assessment on a 35-year-old female scheduled for a
diagnostic laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. The patient reports a latex allergy characterized by lip
swelling and urticaria after blowing up balloons. She denies asthma. The patient's chart lists the allergy but
does not specify the reaction type. According to AORN's Guideline for Latex Allergy Management and
Prevention, what is the best perioperative nursing plan for this patient?
A. Schedule the patient as the first case of the day in a latex-safe environment, ensure all OR supplies (gloves,
catheters, tourniquets, blood pressure cuffs, electrode pads, stoppers) are latex-free, post a latex allergy alert
sign on the OR door, and have epinephrine and resuscitation equipment immediately available. [CORRECT]
B. Administer diphenhydramine and methylprednisolone preoperatively, use standard latex gloves for the surgical
team, and proceed as the second case of the day.
C. Use only powder-free latex gloves, schedule the patient at the end of the day to allow time for terminal cleaning of
the room, and document the allergy.
D. Cancel the procedure and reschedule after consultation with an allergist for definitive patch testing.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: AORN's Guideline for Prevention of Allergic Reactions to Latex (2026) recommends a latex-safe OR
environment for patients with Type I (IgE-mediated) latex allergy, characterized by angioedema and urticaria. Being the first
case of the day minimizes residual latex aeroallergen load. Ensuring latex-free supplies, posting signage, and preparing
emergency medications reflects the AORN latex-safe care bundle. Pre-medication with antihistamines and steroids (B)
without latex-free supplies does not prevent anaphylaxis. Powder-free latex gloves (C) still contain latex proteins and are
unsafe. Routine allergist consultation (D) may be useful but should not delay necessary diagnostic surgery.

Q5: A 78-year-old male is scheduled for an elective inguinal hernia repair under monitored anesthesia care
(MAC). His chart reveals a history of mild cognitive impairment (MCI), well-controlled hypertension, and a
body mass index (BMI) of 41. He lives alone and traveled to the hospital by taxi. According to AORN's
Guideline for Perioperative Patient Assessment, which assessment finding most directly affects the discharge
planning and postoperative education needs of this patient?
A. The diagnosis of mild cognitive impairment requires the nurse to evaluate the patient's ability to
comprehend and retain discharge instructions, ensure a responsible caregiver is identified for escort and
overnight observation, and adapt teaching methods to his cognitive level with written, simplified instructions.
[CORRECT]
B. A BMI of 41 alone dictates that the procedure be converted to general anesthesia due to airway concerns.
C. The history of hypertension is the only relevant factor, because uncontrolled blood pressure would contraindicate
MAC anesthesia.
D. Traveling by taxi is irrelevant because patients are routinely discharged without a caregiver after MAC cases.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: AORN's Guideline for Perioperative Patient Assessment (2026) emphasizes a holistic assessment that includes
cognitive, social, and physical factors affecting postoperative safety. Mild cognitive impairment directly affects the patient's
ability to retain instructions and recognize complications. After MAC anesthesia, the patient should not be discharged alone.
The perioperative RN must verify a responsible caregiver and tailor education to the patient's cognitive ability (A). BMI
alone does not dictate anesthetic choice (B), hypertension is not the sole determining factor for MAC (C), and discharge after
MAC without a caregiver (D) is unsafe and violates post-anesthesia discharge criteria.




Page 3 | Aligned with AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice (2026/2027)

, AORN Periop 101 Final Exam - Questions and Revised Correct Answers (2026/2027) 175 Questions - 100% Guarantee Pass



Q6: During the preoperative chart review, the circulating nurse notes that the consent form for an elective
below-knee amputation is signed but the procedure listed on the consent reads "left leg amputation" while the
surgeon's history and physical (H&P;) and the OR schedule both list "right below-knee amputation." The
patient has already been administered preoperative antibiotics and is awaiting transport to the OR. What is
the perioperative nurse's priority action based on AORN's Guideline for Perioperative Patient Assessment
and The Joint Commission's Universal Protocol?
A. Proceed with the procedure after verbally confirming the correct side with the patient, since verbal confirmation
supersedes written documentation.
B. Halt transport to the OR, notify the surgeon immediately, and require that the consent be corrected and
re-signed before the patient enters the OR, ensuring the marked surgical site is also verified during the
time-out. [CORRECT]
C. Allow the patient to proceed to the OR; the circulating nurse can complete an intraoperative consent amendment
after induction.
D. Cancel the case entirely; any documentation discrepancy in surgical consent automatically invalidates the entire
procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AORN's Guideline for Perioperative Patient Assessment and The Joint Commission Universal Protocol require
that informed consent match the scheduled procedure and operative site. A discrepancy between the consent and the
scheduled side constitutes a potential wrong-site surgery event. The circulating nurse must stop the process, notify the
surgeon to correct and re-sign the consent, and verify site marking during the time-out (B). Verbal confirmation alone (A)
does not supersede written consent. After-induction consent amendment (C) is invalid because the patient is sedated and
cannot give informed consent. Complete cancellation (D) is unnecessary if the consent is corrected before the procedure
begins.

Q7: A 28-year-old female presents at 16 weeks' gestation for an appendectomy due to acute appendicitis. The
surgeon and obstetrician have agreed to proceed. Which perioperative nursing consideration best reflects
AORN's recommendations for the pregnant surgical patient regarding positioning, anesthesia
communication, and fetal safety?
A. Place the patient in a supine position without modification; fetal monitoring is unnecessary before 24 weeks'
gestation.
B. Position the patient with left uterine displacement using a 15-degree right-sided tilt or left lateral wedge to
prevent supine hypotensive syndrome, communicate pregnancy status and gestational age to the anesthesia
professional, and consult with obstetrics regarding intermittent fetal heart rate monitoring perioperatively.
[CORRECT]
C. Use the Trendelenburg position to improve venous return and facilitate exposure of the appendix.
D. Delay the procedure until the second trimester has been completed to minimize teratogenic risk from anesthetic
agents.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AORN's Guideline for Positioning the Patient (2026) and the ACOG/ASA Practice Advisory on Obstetric
Anesthesia recommend left uterine displacement after 20 weeks' gestation to prevent aortocaval compression and supine
hypotensive syndrome. Earlier in pregnancy, the wedge is still appropriate when feasible. Perioperative nurses must
communicate pregnancy to the anesthesia professional and consult obstetrics for fetal monitoring, even before 24 weeks in
many cases (B). Supine positioning without modification (A) risks maternal hypotension and fetal hypoperfusion.
Trendelenburg (C) worsens respiratory mechanics and venous engorgement. Delaying an emergent appendectomy (D)
increases risk of perforation, sepsis, and fetal loss.




Page 4 | Aligned with AORN Guidelines for Perioperative Practice (2026/2027)

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