AORN PERIOP 101 EXAM REVIEW
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2026/2027
UPDATE. JUST RELEASED
1. According to AORN guidelines, which part of the surgical gown is considered sterile?
A. The front from the chest to the level of the sterile field
B. The entire front from the neck to the waist
C. The sleeves from the shoulder to the wrist
D. The back of the gown if it is a wrap-around style
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Surgical gowns are considered sterile from the chest to the level
of the sterile field and the sleeves from two inches above the elbow to the cuff. The back is
never considered sterile.
2. What is the first action a perioperative nurse should take if a sponge count is incorrect
after the first closing count?
A. Order a portable X-ray immediately
B. Notify the surgeon and perform a recount
C. Document the discrepancy in the patient’s chart
,D. Search the trash and linen bags
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The immediate step is to notify the surgeon and the team to stop
closure (if safe) and perform a methodical recount of all sponges.
3. Which physiological sign is often the earliest indicator of Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)
during general anesthesia?
A. Rapid rise in body temperature
B. Unexplained increase in End-Tidal CO2
C. Masseter muscle rigidity
D. Ventricular tachycardia
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: An unexplained increase in ETCO2 is typically the earliest and
most sensitive sign of MH due to the hypermetabolic state.
4. When using a pneumatic tourniquet, what is the maximum recommended time for
inflation before the cuff should be deflated to allow for reperfusion?
A. 60 minutes for upper extremities
B. 90 minutes for upper extremities
C. Both B and C are generally accepted limits
D. 120 minutes for lower extremities
, Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Standard practice suggests limiting upper extremity inflation to
90 minutes and lower extremity to 120 minutes to prevent nerve and tissue damage.
5. In the ‘Fire Triangle’, which of the following is considered an oxidizer commonly found in
the OR?
A. Electrosurgical Unit (ESU)
B. Alcohol-based skin prep
C. Surgical drapes
D. Nitrous oxide
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The fire triangle consists of fuel (drapes, prep), ignition source
(ESU, laser), and oxidizer (Oxygen, Nitrous Oxide).
6. Where should the dispersive electrode (grounding pad) for the ESU be placed on the
patient?
A. Over a bony prominence to ensure contact
B. On a large, well-perfused muscle mass
C. As close to the surgical site as possible, regardless of skin condition
D. On the side of the body opposite the surgical site
Answer: B
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2026/2027
UPDATE. JUST RELEASED
1. According to AORN guidelines, which part of the surgical gown is considered sterile?
A. The front from the chest to the level of the sterile field
B. The entire front from the neck to the waist
C. The sleeves from the shoulder to the wrist
D. The back of the gown if it is a wrap-around style
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Surgical gowns are considered sterile from the chest to the level
of the sterile field and the sleeves from two inches above the elbow to the cuff. The back is
never considered sterile.
2. What is the first action a perioperative nurse should take if a sponge count is incorrect
after the first closing count?
A. Order a portable X-ray immediately
B. Notify the surgeon and perform a recount
C. Document the discrepancy in the patient’s chart
,D. Search the trash and linen bags
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The immediate step is to notify the surgeon and the team to stop
closure (if safe) and perform a methodical recount of all sponges.
3. Which physiological sign is often the earliest indicator of Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)
during general anesthesia?
A. Rapid rise in body temperature
B. Unexplained increase in End-Tidal CO2
C. Masseter muscle rigidity
D. Ventricular tachycardia
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: An unexplained increase in ETCO2 is typically the earliest and
most sensitive sign of MH due to the hypermetabolic state.
4. When using a pneumatic tourniquet, what is the maximum recommended time for
inflation before the cuff should be deflated to allow for reperfusion?
A. 60 minutes for upper extremities
B. 90 minutes for upper extremities
C. Both B and C are generally accepted limits
D. 120 minutes for lower extremities
, Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Standard practice suggests limiting upper extremity inflation to
90 minutes and lower extremity to 120 minutes to prevent nerve and tissue damage.
5. In the ‘Fire Triangle’, which of the following is considered an oxidizer commonly found in
the OR?
A. Electrosurgical Unit (ESU)
B. Alcohol-based skin prep
C. Surgical drapes
D. Nitrous oxide
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: The fire triangle consists of fuel (drapes, prep), ignition source
(ESU, laser), and oxidizer (Oxygen, Nitrous Oxide).
6. Where should the dispersive electrode (grounding pad) for the ESU be placed on the
patient?
A. Over a bony prominence to ensure contact
B. On a large, well-perfused muscle mass
C. As close to the surgical site as possible, regardless of skin condition
D. On the side of the body opposite the surgical site
Answer: B
