BIOS 252 Practice Exam Questions and Answers with Rationales |
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
Question 1. Which finding is most directly consistent with normal withdrawal reflex function or
anatomical contribution?
A. Flexes a limb away from a painful stimulus through a polysynaptic spinal circuit.
B. Contains autonomic preganglionic neuron cell bodies at characteristic spinal levels.
C. Make up the sacral portion of the 31 paired spinal nerves.
D. Contains cell bodies of pseudounipolar sensory neurons.
Correct Answer: A. Flexes a limb away from a painful stimulus through a polysynaptic spinal circuit.
Explanation: The defining role of withdrawal reflex is that it flexes a limb away from a painful stimulus through a
polysynaptic spinal circuit. Its relevant anatomical context is in spinal interneuron networks after nociceptor activation.
The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 2. Select the complete anatomy-function description that is accurate for abducens nerve (CN VI).
A. amygdala - located in the medial temporal lobe - innervates the lateral rectus muscle to abduct the eye
B. Broca area - located usually in the inferior frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere - innervates the lateral rectus
muscle to abduct the eye
C. abducens nerve (CN VI) - located from the pons to the orbit - innervates the lateral rectus muscle to abduct the eye
D. acetylcholine at parasympathetic effectors - located at parasympathetic postganglionic neuroeffector junctions -
innervates the lateral rectus muscle to abduct the eye
Correct Answer: C. abducens nerve (CN VI) - located from the pons to the orbit - innervates the lateral rectus
muscle to abduct the eye
Explanation: The defining role of abducens nerve (CN VI) is that it innervates the lateral rectus muscle to abduct the eye.
Its relevant anatomical context is from the pons to the orbit. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context
as well.
Question 3. A model isolates dysfunction to inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP). Which finding best
reflects the resulting loss of function?
A. Reduced acts as a major sympathetic postganglionic transmitter and as a CNS neuromodulator.
B. Reduced hyperpolarizes or stabilizes a postsynaptic membrane and decreases the probability of firing.
C. Reduced serves as the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the adult brain.
D. Reduced acts as the resident phagocytic immune cell of the CNS.
Correct Answer: B. Reduced hyperpolarizes or stabilizes a postsynaptic membrane and decreases the probability
of firing.
Explanation: The defining role of inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is that it hyperpolarizes or stabilizes a
postsynaptic membrane and decreases the probability of firing. Its relevant anatomical context is in the postsynaptic
membrane after inhibitory transmitter action. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 4. Using both clues - anatomical context (in the thalamus) and function (relays most visual
information from optic tract to visual cortex) - which component is the best match?
A. retinal bipolar cell
B. retinal ganglion cell
C. lateral geniculate nucleus
D. optic chiasm
Correct Answer: C. lateral geniculate nucleus
,Explanation: The defining role of lateral geniculate nucleus is that it relays most visual information from optic tract to
visual cortex. Its relevant anatomical context is in the thalamus. The alternatives do not match the tested function and
context as well.
Question 5. An isolated change affects motor-unit recruitment but spares neighboring components. Which
function is most directly affected?
A. Anchor thin filaments in smooth muscle cells.
B. Extends the knee.
C. Consists of one somatic motor neuron and all skeletal muscle fibers it innervates.
D. Increases muscle force by activating additional motor units.
Correct Answer: D. Increases muscle force by activating additional motor units.
Explanation: The defining role of motor-unit recruitment is that it increases muscle force by activating additional motor
units. Its relevant anatomical context is during graded increases in neural drive to a muscle. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
Question 6. A reviewer wants evidence of the normal contribution of conus medullaris. Which finding is
most appropriate?
A. Make up the lumbar portion of the 31 paired spinal nerves.
B. Contains cerebrospinal fluid surrounding the spinal cord.
C. Forms the tapered inferior end of the adult spinal cord.
D. Provides the primary motor innervation to the diaphragm.
Correct Answer: C. Forms the tapered inferior end of the adult spinal cord.
Explanation: The defining role of conus medullaris is that it forms the tapered inferior end of the adult spinal cord. Its
relevant anatomical context is near the L1-L2 vertebral level in most adults. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
Question 7. Which description correctly links beta-2 adrenergic receptor with both its anatomical setting
and its principal role?
A. beta-2 adrenergic receptor - located in airways and selected vascular beds - relaxes selected smooth muscle such
as bronchial smooth muscle
B. vagus nerve (CN X) - located from the medulla through neck, thorax, and abdomen - relaxes selected smooth
muscle such as bronchial smooth muscle
C. sympathetic cholinergic fibers to sweat glands - located in sympathetic postganglionic pathways to eccrine sweat
glands - relaxes selected smooth muscle such as bronchial smooth muscle
D. parasympathetic division - located with craniosacral preganglionic outflow - relaxes selected smooth muscle such
as bronchial smooth muscle
Correct Answer: A. beta-2 adrenergic receptor - located in airways and selected vascular beds - relaxes selected
smooth muscle such as bronchial smooth muscle
Explanation: The defining role of beta-2 adrenergic receptor is that it relaxes selected smooth muscle such as bronchial
smooth muscle. Its relevant anatomical context is in airways and selected vascular beds. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 8. Selective loss of gluteus maximus occurs while nearby components remain intact. Which
consequence is most directly expected?
A. Disruption of fascicle-level organization.
B. Difficulty rising from a chair or climbing stairs because hip extension is weak.
C. Prolonged acetylcholine action and sustained end-plate stimulation.
D. Reduced serves as the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber and contains glycogen, myoglobin, and organelles.
Correct Answer: B. Difficulty rising from a chair or climbing stairs because hip extension is weak.
,Explanation: The defining role of gluteus maximus is that it powerfully extends the hip. Its relevant anatomical context is
in the posterior hip. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 9. Which effect is the most direct consequence of disabling Schwann cell?
A. Disrupted extracellular homeostasis and support around CNS synapses.
B. Slowed conduction in a peripheral axon.
C. Slowed or blocked impulse conduction.
D. Reduced terminates signaling by chemically breaking down transmitter in or near the synaptic cleft.
Correct Answer: B. Slowed conduction in a peripheral axon.
Explanation: The defining role of Schwann cell is that it forms myelin around a segment of one peripheral axon and
supports peripheral nerve repair. Its relevant anatomical context is in the peripheral nervous system. The alternatives do
not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 10. Which description correctly links growth hormone (GH) with both its anatomical setting and
its principal role?
A. erythropoietin - located primarily from the kidneys - promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important
metabolic effects
B. insulin - located from pancreatic beta cells to many tissues - promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important
metabolic effects
C. growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) - located from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary portal blood -
promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important metabolic effects
D. growth hormone (GH) - located from anterior pituitary somatotrophs to many tissues - promotes IGF-1-dependent
growth and has important metabolic effects
Correct Answer: D. growth hormone (GH) - located from anterior pituitary somatotrophs to many tissues -
promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important metabolic effects
Explanation: The defining role of growth hormone (GH) is that it promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important
metabolic effects. Its relevant anatomical context is from anterior pituitary somatotrophs to many tissues. The alternatives
do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 11. Which finding is most directly consistent with normal ventral root function or anatomical
contribution?
A. Gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh.
B. Forms the tapered inferior end of the adult spinal cord.
C. Carries motor axons out of the spinal cord.
D. Carries pain, temperature, and crude touch information toward the brain.
Correct Answer: C. Carries motor axons out of the spinal cord.
Explanation: The defining role of ventral root is that it carries motor axons out of the spinal cord. Its relevant anatomical
context is on the anterior side of each spinal cord segment before joining the spinal nerve. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
Question 12. A model selectively perturbs the normal contribution of frontal lobe. Which physiologic role
would be altered most directly?
A. Supports executive functions, voluntary motor planning, and aspects of speech production.
B. Commonly causes smooth muscle contraction such as vasoconstriction in many vascular beds.
C. Activates adrenergic receptors at many sympathetic target organs.
D. Are paired CSF-filled cavities within the cerebral hemispheres.
Correct Answer: A. Supports executive functions, voluntary motor planning, and aspects of speech production.
, Explanation: The defining role of frontal lobe is that it supports executive functions, voluntary motor planning, and
aspects of speech production. Its relevant anatomical context is in the anterior cerebrum. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 13. A component is linked to in the musculoskeletal system and normally reports body position
and movement using receptors in muscles, tendons, and joints. Which option identifies it?
A. proprioceptor
B. chemoreceptor
C. slow pain
D. auditory (pharyngotympanic) tube
Correct Answer: A. proprioceptor
Explanation: The defining role of proprioceptor is that it reports body position and movement using receptors in muscles,
tendons, and joints. Its relevant anatomical context is in the musculoskeletal system. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 14. Selective loss of efferent neuron occurs while nearby components remain intact. Which
consequence is most directly expected?
A. Reduced serves as the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the adult brain.
B. Reduced acts as a major sympathetic postganglionic transmitter and as a CNS neuromodulator.
C. Reduced supports neuronal cell bodies in peripheral ganglia.
D. Reduced carries motor commands away from the central nervous system toward effectors.
Correct Answer: D. Reduced carries motor commands away from the central nervous system toward effectors.
Explanation: The defining role of efferent neuron is that it carries motor commands away from the central nervous system
toward effectors. Its relevant anatomical context is in somatic and autonomic motor pathways. The alternatives do not
match the tested function and context as well.
Question 15. A laboratory practical asks for both location and function of posterior pituitary. Which
description is accurate?
A. positive feedback - located in selected processes such as oxytocin-driven labor - stores and releases ADH and
oxytocin made in hypothalamic neurons
B. negative feedback - located in most endocrine homeostatic loops - stores and releases ADH and oxytocin made in
hypothalamic neurons
C. pancreatic islets - located within the pancreas among exocrine tissue - stores and releases ADH and oxytocin made
in hypothalamic neurons
D. posterior pituitary - located in the neurohypophysis - stores and releases ADH and oxytocin made in hypothalamic
neurons
Correct Answer: D. posterior pituitary - located in the neurohypophysis - stores and releases ADH and oxytocin
made in hypothalamic neurons
Explanation: The defining role of posterior pituitary is that it stores and releases ADH and oxytocin made in hypothalamic
neurons. Its relevant anatomical context is in the neurohypophysis. The alternatives do not match the tested function and
context as well.
Question 16. A defect prevents calcium dissociates from troponin during skeletal muscle relaxation.
Which immediate downstream event is therefore lost?
A. Motor-neuron stimulation ends.
B. Tropomyosin re-covers actin binding sites.
C. Acetylcholine is cleared from the synaptic cleft.
D. Cytosolic calcium is pumped back into the sr.
Correct Answer: B. Tropomyosin re-covers actin binding sites.
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
Question 1. Which finding is most directly consistent with normal withdrawal reflex function or
anatomical contribution?
A. Flexes a limb away from a painful stimulus through a polysynaptic spinal circuit.
B. Contains autonomic preganglionic neuron cell bodies at characteristic spinal levels.
C. Make up the sacral portion of the 31 paired spinal nerves.
D. Contains cell bodies of pseudounipolar sensory neurons.
Correct Answer: A. Flexes a limb away from a painful stimulus through a polysynaptic spinal circuit.
Explanation: The defining role of withdrawal reflex is that it flexes a limb away from a painful stimulus through a
polysynaptic spinal circuit. Its relevant anatomical context is in spinal interneuron networks after nociceptor activation.
The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 2. Select the complete anatomy-function description that is accurate for abducens nerve (CN VI).
A. amygdala - located in the medial temporal lobe - innervates the lateral rectus muscle to abduct the eye
B. Broca area - located usually in the inferior frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere - innervates the lateral rectus
muscle to abduct the eye
C. abducens nerve (CN VI) - located from the pons to the orbit - innervates the lateral rectus muscle to abduct the eye
D. acetylcholine at parasympathetic effectors - located at parasympathetic postganglionic neuroeffector junctions -
innervates the lateral rectus muscle to abduct the eye
Correct Answer: C. abducens nerve (CN VI) - located from the pons to the orbit - innervates the lateral rectus
muscle to abduct the eye
Explanation: The defining role of abducens nerve (CN VI) is that it innervates the lateral rectus muscle to abduct the eye.
Its relevant anatomical context is from the pons to the orbit. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context
as well.
Question 3. A model isolates dysfunction to inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP). Which finding best
reflects the resulting loss of function?
A. Reduced acts as a major sympathetic postganglionic transmitter and as a CNS neuromodulator.
B. Reduced hyperpolarizes or stabilizes a postsynaptic membrane and decreases the probability of firing.
C. Reduced serves as the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the adult brain.
D. Reduced acts as the resident phagocytic immune cell of the CNS.
Correct Answer: B. Reduced hyperpolarizes or stabilizes a postsynaptic membrane and decreases the probability
of firing.
Explanation: The defining role of inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is that it hyperpolarizes or stabilizes a
postsynaptic membrane and decreases the probability of firing. Its relevant anatomical context is in the postsynaptic
membrane after inhibitory transmitter action. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 4. Using both clues - anatomical context (in the thalamus) and function (relays most visual
information from optic tract to visual cortex) - which component is the best match?
A. retinal bipolar cell
B. retinal ganglion cell
C. lateral geniculate nucleus
D. optic chiasm
Correct Answer: C. lateral geniculate nucleus
,Explanation: The defining role of lateral geniculate nucleus is that it relays most visual information from optic tract to
visual cortex. Its relevant anatomical context is in the thalamus. The alternatives do not match the tested function and
context as well.
Question 5. An isolated change affects motor-unit recruitment but spares neighboring components. Which
function is most directly affected?
A. Anchor thin filaments in smooth muscle cells.
B. Extends the knee.
C. Consists of one somatic motor neuron and all skeletal muscle fibers it innervates.
D. Increases muscle force by activating additional motor units.
Correct Answer: D. Increases muscle force by activating additional motor units.
Explanation: The defining role of motor-unit recruitment is that it increases muscle force by activating additional motor
units. Its relevant anatomical context is during graded increases in neural drive to a muscle. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
Question 6. A reviewer wants evidence of the normal contribution of conus medullaris. Which finding is
most appropriate?
A. Make up the lumbar portion of the 31 paired spinal nerves.
B. Contains cerebrospinal fluid surrounding the spinal cord.
C. Forms the tapered inferior end of the adult spinal cord.
D. Provides the primary motor innervation to the diaphragm.
Correct Answer: C. Forms the tapered inferior end of the adult spinal cord.
Explanation: The defining role of conus medullaris is that it forms the tapered inferior end of the adult spinal cord. Its
relevant anatomical context is near the L1-L2 vertebral level in most adults. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
Question 7. Which description correctly links beta-2 adrenergic receptor with both its anatomical setting
and its principal role?
A. beta-2 adrenergic receptor - located in airways and selected vascular beds - relaxes selected smooth muscle such
as bronchial smooth muscle
B. vagus nerve (CN X) - located from the medulla through neck, thorax, and abdomen - relaxes selected smooth
muscle such as bronchial smooth muscle
C. sympathetic cholinergic fibers to sweat glands - located in sympathetic postganglionic pathways to eccrine sweat
glands - relaxes selected smooth muscle such as bronchial smooth muscle
D. parasympathetic division - located with craniosacral preganglionic outflow - relaxes selected smooth muscle such
as bronchial smooth muscle
Correct Answer: A. beta-2 adrenergic receptor - located in airways and selected vascular beds - relaxes selected
smooth muscle such as bronchial smooth muscle
Explanation: The defining role of beta-2 adrenergic receptor is that it relaxes selected smooth muscle such as bronchial
smooth muscle. Its relevant anatomical context is in airways and selected vascular beds. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 8. Selective loss of gluteus maximus occurs while nearby components remain intact. Which
consequence is most directly expected?
A. Disruption of fascicle-level organization.
B. Difficulty rising from a chair or climbing stairs because hip extension is weak.
C. Prolonged acetylcholine action and sustained end-plate stimulation.
D. Reduced serves as the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber and contains glycogen, myoglobin, and organelles.
Correct Answer: B. Difficulty rising from a chair or climbing stairs because hip extension is weak.
,Explanation: The defining role of gluteus maximus is that it powerfully extends the hip. Its relevant anatomical context is
in the posterior hip. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 9. Which effect is the most direct consequence of disabling Schwann cell?
A. Disrupted extracellular homeostasis and support around CNS synapses.
B. Slowed conduction in a peripheral axon.
C. Slowed or blocked impulse conduction.
D. Reduced terminates signaling by chemically breaking down transmitter in or near the synaptic cleft.
Correct Answer: B. Slowed conduction in a peripheral axon.
Explanation: The defining role of Schwann cell is that it forms myelin around a segment of one peripheral axon and
supports peripheral nerve repair. Its relevant anatomical context is in the peripheral nervous system. The alternatives do
not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 10. Which description correctly links growth hormone (GH) with both its anatomical setting and
its principal role?
A. erythropoietin - located primarily from the kidneys - promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important
metabolic effects
B. insulin - located from pancreatic beta cells to many tissues - promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important
metabolic effects
C. growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) - located from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary portal blood -
promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important metabolic effects
D. growth hormone (GH) - located from anterior pituitary somatotrophs to many tissues - promotes IGF-1-dependent
growth and has important metabolic effects
Correct Answer: D. growth hormone (GH) - located from anterior pituitary somatotrophs to many tissues -
promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important metabolic effects
Explanation: The defining role of growth hormone (GH) is that it promotes IGF-1-dependent growth and has important
metabolic effects. Its relevant anatomical context is from anterior pituitary somatotrophs to many tissues. The alternatives
do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 11. Which finding is most directly consistent with normal ventral root function or anatomical
contribution?
A. Gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh.
B. Forms the tapered inferior end of the adult spinal cord.
C. Carries motor axons out of the spinal cord.
D. Carries pain, temperature, and crude touch information toward the brain.
Correct Answer: C. Carries motor axons out of the spinal cord.
Explanation: The defining role of ventral root is that it carries motor axons out of the spinal cord. Its relevant anatomical
context is on the anterior side of each spinal cord segment before joining the spinal nerve. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
Question 12. A model selectively perturbs the normal contribution of frontal lobe. Which physiologic role
would be altered most directly?
A. Supports executive functions, voluntary motor planning, and aspects of speech production.
B. Commonly causes smooth muscle contraction such as vasoconstriction in many vascular beds.
C. Activates adrenergic receptors at many sympathetic target organs.
D. Are paired CSF-filled cavities within the cerebral hemispheres.
Correct Answer: A. Supports executive functions, voluntary motor planning, and aspects of speech production.
, Explanation: The defining role of frontal lobe is that it supports executive functions, voluntary motor planning, and
aspects of speech production. Its relevant anatomical context is in the anterior cerebrum. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 13. A component is linked to in the musculoskeletal system and normally reports body position
and movement using receptors in muscles, tendons, and joints. Which option identifies it?
A. proprioceptor
B. chemoreceptor
C. slow pain
D. auditory (pharyngotympanic) tube
Correct Answer: A. proprioceptor
Explanation: The defining role of proprioceptor is that it reports body position and movement using receptors in muscles,
tendons, and joints. Its relevant anatomical context is in the musculoskeletal system. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 14. Selective loss of efferent neuron occurs while nearby components remain intact. Which
consequence is most directly expected?
A. Reduced serves as the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the adult brain.
B. Reduced acts as a major sympathetic postganglionic transmitter and as a CNS neuromodulator.
C. Reduced supports neuronal cell bodies in peripheral ganglia.
D. Reduced carries motor commands away from the central nervous system toward effectors.
Correct Answer: D. Reduced carries motor commands away from the central nervous system toward effectors.
Explanation: The defining role of efferent neuron is that it carries motor commands away from the central nervous system
toward effectors. Its relevant anatomical context is in somatic and autonomic motor pathways. The alternatives do not
match the tested function and context as well.
Question 15. A laboratory practical asks for both location and function of posterior pituitary. Which
description is accurate?
A. positive feedback - located in selected processes such as oxytocin-driven labor - stores and releases ADH and
oxytocin made in hypothalamic neurons
B. negative feedback - located in most endocrine homeostatic loops - stores and releases ADH and oxytocin made in
hypothalamic neurons
C. pancreatic islets - located within the pancreas among exocrine tissue - stores and releases ADH and oxytocin made
in hypothalamic neurons
D. posterior pituitary - located in the neurohypophysis - stores and releases ADH and oxytocin made in hypothalamic
neurons
Correct Answer: D. posterior pituitary - located in the neurohypophysis - stores and releases ADH and oxytocin
made in hypothalamic neurons
Explanation: The defining role of posterior pituitary is that it stores and releases ADH and oxytocin made in hypothalamic
neurons. Its relevant anatomical context is in the neurohypophysis. The alternatives do not match the tested function and
context as well.
Question 16. A defect prevents calcium dissociates from troponin during skeletal muscle relaxation.
Which immediate downstream event is therefore lost?
A. Motor-neuron stimulation ends.
B. Tropomyosin re-covers actin binding sites.
C. Acetylcholine is cleared from the synaptic cleft.
D. Cytosolic calcium is pumped back into the sr.
Correct Answer: B. Tropomyosin re-covers actin binding sites.
