BIOS 252 Final Exam Questions and Answers with Rationales |
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
Question 1. Which component is associated with between major deep gray nuclei and also has the role of
contains densely packed projection fibers traveling between cortex and deeper structures?
A. beta-1 adrenergic receptor
B. internal capsule
C. sympathetic division
D. terminal/intramural parasympathetic ganglia
Correct Answer: B. internal capsule
Explanation: The defining role of internal capsule is that it contains densely packed projection fibers traveling between
cortex and deeper structures. Its relevant anatomical context is between major deep gray nuclei. The alternatives do not
match the tested function and context as well.
Question 2. A question asks for the physiologic contribution of leptin. Which response is most accurate?
A. Stimulates red blood cell production in bone marrow in response to reduced renal oxygen delivery.
B. Promotes sodium and water loss and opposes volume-expanding signals.
C. Signals energy stores to the hypothalamus and tends to suppress appetite when effective.
D. Initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system when renal perfusion or sodium delivery is reduced.
Correct Answer: C. Signals energy stores to the hypothalamus and tends to suppress appetite when effective.
Explanation: The defining role of leptin is that it signals energy stores to the hypothalamus and tends to suppress appetite
when effective. Its relevant anatomical context is from adipose tissue. The alternatives do not match the tested function
and context as well.
Question 3. Which component is associated with in superficial dermis of glabrous skin and also has the
role of detects light touch and low-frequency skin movement with rapid adaptation?
A. Meissner corpuscle
B. Pacinian corpuscle
C. Merkel disc
D. Ruffini ending
Correct Answer: A. Meissner corpuscle
Explanation: The defining role of Meissner corpuscle is that it detects light touch and low-frequency skin movement with
rapid adaptation. Its relevant anatomical context is in superficial dermis of glabrous skin. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
Question 4. In normal physiology, what does brachial plexus primarily contribute?
A. Gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh.
B. Gives rise to nerves supplying much of the posterior thigh, leg, and foot.
C. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
D. Supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm.
Correct Answer: C. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
Explanation: The defining role of brachial plexus is that it gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb. Its relevant
anatomical context is formed mainly by anterior rami C5-T1. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context
as well.
,Question 5. Which component best matches this physiologic description: innervates sternocleidomastoid
and trapezius for head turning and shoulder elevation?
A. accessory nerve (CN XI)
B. vagus nerve (CN X)
C. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
D. abducens nerve (CN VI)
Correct Answer: A. accessory nerve (CN XI)
Explanation: The defining role of accessory nerve (CN XI) is that it innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius for head
turning and shoulder elevation. Its relevant anatomical context is from upper spinal cord/brainstem pathways to neck
muscles. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 6. Which answer satisfies both features - association with behind the iris and pupil and the
ability to changes shape to fine-tune focus of light on the retina?
A. retina
B. iris
C. lens
D. cornea
Correct Answer: C. lens
Explanation: The defining role of lens is that it changes shape to fine-tune focus of light on the retina. Its relevant
anatomical context is behind the iris and pupil. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 7. A question asks for the physiologic contribution of somatostatin. Which response is most
accurate?
A. Stimulates anterior pituitary TSH release and can promote prolactin release.
B. Stimulates anterior pituitary gh release.
C. Stimulates anterior pituitary FSH and LH release.
D. Inhibits growth hormone release and also suppresses TSH to a degree.
Correct Answer: D. Inhibits growth hormone release and also suppresses TSH to a degree.
Explanation: The defining role of somatostatin is that it inhibits growth hormone release and also suppresses TSH to a
degree. Its relevant anatomical context is from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary portal blood. The alternatives do not
match the tested function and context as well.
Question 8. What is the primary role of cervical plexus?
A. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
B. Gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh.
C. Gives rise to nerves supplying much of the posterior thigh, leg, and foot.
D. Supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm.
Correct Answer: D. Supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm.
Explanation: The defining role of cervical plexus is that it supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve
to the diaphragm. Its relevant anatomical context is formed mainly by anterior rami C1-C4. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
,Question 9. A student is given the function 'releases neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft after calcium
entry'. Which option identifies the component responsible?
A. synaptic vesicle exocytosis
B. multipolar neuron
C. relative refractory period
D. afferent neuron
Correct Answer: A. synaptic vesicle exocytosis
Explanation: The defining role of synaptic vesicle exocytosis is that it releases neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft
after calcium entry. Its relevant anatomical context is at presynaptic active zones. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
Question 10. The principal abnormality is auditory, memory, or language-comprehension deficits
depending on the region. Which option provides the best anatomical or physiologic localization?
A. temporal lobe
B. basal nuclei
C. cerebellum
D. frontal lobe
Correct Answer: A. temporal lobe
Explanation: The defining role of temporal lobe is that it supports auditory processing, memory functions, and language
comprehension in the dominant hemisphere. Its relevant anatomical context is on the lateral inferior cerebrum. The
alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 11. Using both clues - anatomical context (from the brachial plexus through the anterior forearm
and carpal tunnel) and function (innervates many forearm flexors and thenar muscles and supplies
sensation to lateral palmar digits) - which component is the best match?
A. phrenic nerve
B. median nerve
C. common fibular nerve
D. tibial nerve
Correct Answer: B. median nerve
Explanation: The defining role of median nerve is that it innervates many forearm flexors and thenar muscles and supplies
sensation to lateral palmar digits. Its relevant anatomical context is from the brachial plexus through the anterior forearm
and carpal tunnel. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 12. Which process depends most directly on the normal action of oxytocin?
A. Lowers blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake in insulin-sensitive tissues and favoring nutrient storage.
B. Contain endocrine cells that secrete hormones such as insulin and glucagon.
C. Stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection.
D. Releases epinephrine and norepinephrine during sympathetic activation.
Correct Answer: C. Stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection.
Explanation: The defining role of oxytocin is that it stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection. Its relevant
anatomical context is synthesized in hypothalamus and released from posterior pituitary. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
, Question 13. During a sensory physiology review, which process depends most directly on the normal
action of interoceptor?
A. Detects linear acceleration and head tilt mainly in the horizontal plane.
B. Receives vibration from the tympanic membrane and transmits it to the incus.
C. Detects stimuli arising within internal organs and vessels.
D. Compares air conduction with bone conduction to help distinguish conductive from sensorineural hearing patterns.
Correct Answer: C. Detects stimuli arising within internal organs and vessels.
Explanation: The defining role of interoceptor is that it detects stimuli arising within internal organs and vessels. Its
relevant anatomical context is in viscera and vascular structures. The alternatives do not match the tested function and
context as well.
Question 14. Which dysfunction best localizes to sarcolemma when the finding is abnormal propagation of
the muscle action potential?
A. aerobic respiration
B. sarcoplasm
C. sarcolemma
D. smooth muscle
Correct Answer: C. sarcolemma
Explanation: The defining role of sarcolemma is that it forms the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. Its relevant
anatomical context is at the surface of a muscle fiber. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as
well.
Question 15. During an anatomy and physiology review, which component should be selected for the
function 'depolarizes a postsynaptic cell and increases the probability of reaching threshold'?
A. excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
B. inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
C. temporal summation
D. spatial summation
Correct Answer: A. excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
Explanation: The defining role of excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is that it depolarizes a postsynaptic cell and
increases the probability of reaching threshold. Its relevant anatomical context is in the postsynaptic membrane after
excitatory transmitter action. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 16. What is the primary role of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A. Lowers blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake in insulin-sensitive tissues and favoring nutrient storage.
B. Features insulin resistance with progressive beta-cell dysfunction.
C. Results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells causing absolute insulin deficiency.
D. Raises blood glucose primarily by stimulating hepatic glycogen breakdown and glucose production.
Correct Answer: B. Features insulin resistance with progressive beta-cell dysfunction.
Explanation: The defining role of type 2 diabetes mellitus is that it features insulin resistance with progressive beta-cell
dysfunction. Its relevant anatomical context is as a common metabolic endocrine disorder. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
Question 1. Which component is associated with between major deep gray nuclei and also has the role of
contains densely packed projection fibers traveling between cortex and deeper structures?
A. beta-1 adrenergic receptor
B. internal capsule
C. sympathetic division
D. terminal/intramural parasympathetic ganglia
Correct Answer: B. internal capsule
Explanation: The defining role of internal capsule is that it contains densely packed projection fibers traveling between
cortex and deeper structures. Its relevant anatomical context is between major deep gray nuclei. The alternatives do not
match the tested function and context as well.
Question 2. A question asks for the physiologic contribution of leptin. Which response is most accurate?
A. Stimulates red blood cell production in bone marrow in response to reduced renal oxygen delivery.
B. Promotes sodium and water loss and opposes volume-expanding signals.
C. Signals energy stores to the hypothalamus and tends to suppress appetite when effective.
D. Initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system when renal perfusion or sodium delivery is reduced.
Correct Answer: C. Signals energy stores to the hypothalamus and tends to suppress appetite when effective.
Explanation: The defining role of leptin is that it signals energy stores to the hypothalamus and tends to suppress appetite
when effective. Its relevant anatomical context is from adipose tissue. The alternatives do not match the tested function
and context as well.
Question 3. Which component is associated with in superficial dermis of glabrous skin and also has the
role of detects light touch and low-frequency skin movement with rapid adaptation?
A. Meissner corpuscle
B. Pacinian corpuscle
C. Merkel disc
D. Ruffini ending
Correct Answer: A. Meissner corpuscle
Explanation: The defining role of Meissner corpuscle is that it detects light touch and low-frequency skin movement with
rapid adaptation. Its relevant anatomical context is in superficial dermis of glabrous skin. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
Question 4. In normal physiology, what does brachial plexus primarily contribute?
A. Gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh.
B. Gives rise to nerves supplying much of the posterior thigh, leg, and foot.
C. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
D. Supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm.
Correct Answer: C. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
Explanation: The defining role of brachial plexus is that it gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb. Its relevant
anatomical context is formed mainly by anterior rami C5-T1. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context
as well.
,Question 5. Which component best matches this physiologic description: innervates sternocleidomastoid
and trapezius for head turning and shoulder elevation?
A. accessory nerve (CN XI)
B. vagus nerve (CN X)
C. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
D. abducens nerve (CN VI)
Correct Answer: A. accessory nerve (CN XI)
Explanation: The defining role of accessory nerve (CN XI) is that it innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius for head
turning and shoulder elevation. Its relevant anatomical context is from upper spinal cord/brainstem pathways to neck
muscles. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 6. Which answer satisfies both features - association with behind the iris and pupil and the
ability to changes shape to fine-tune focus of light on the retina?
A. retina
B. iris
C. lens
D. cornea
Correct Answer: C. lens
Explanation: The defining role of lens is that it changes shape to fine-tune focus of light on the retina. Its relevant
anatomical context is behind the iris and pupil. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 7. A question asks for the physiologic contribution of somatostatin. Which response is most
accurate?
A. Stimulates anterior pituitary TSH release and can promote prolactin release.
B. Stimulates anterior pituitary gh release.
C. Stimulates anterior pituitary FSH and LH release.
D. Inhibits growth hormone release and also suppresses TSH to a degree.
Correct Answer: D. Inhibits growth hormone release and also suppresses TSH to a degree.
Explanation: The defining role of somatostatin is that it inhibits growth hormone release and also suppresses TSH to a
degree. Its relevant anatomical context is from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary portal blood. The alternatives do not
match the tested function and context as well.
Question 8. What is the primary role of cervical plexus?
A. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
B. Gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh.
C. Gives rise to nerves supplying much of the posterior thigh, leg, and foot.
D. Supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm.
Correct Answer: D. Supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm.
Explanation: The defining role of cervical plexus is that it supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve
to the diaphragm. Its relevant anatomical context is formed mainly by anterior rami C1-C4. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
,Question 9. A student is given the function 'releases neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft after calcium
entry'. Which option identifies the component responsible?
A. synaptic vesicle exocytosis
B. multipolar neuron
C. relative refractory period
D. afferent neuron
Correct Answer: A. synaptic vesicle exocytosis
Explanation: The defining role of synaptic vesicle exocytosis is that it releases neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft
after calcium entry. Its relevant anatomical context is at presynaptic active zones. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
Question 10. The principal abnormality is auditory, memory, or language-comprehension deficits
depending on the region. Which option provides the best anatomical or physiologic localization?
A. temporal lobe
B. basal nuclei
C. cerebellum
D. frontal lobe
Correct Answer: A. temporal lobe
Explanation: The defining role of temporal lobe is that it supports auditory processing, memory functions, and language
comprehension in the dominant hemisphere. Its relevant anatomical context is on the lateral inferior cerebrum. The
alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 11. Using both clues - anatomical context (from the brachial plexus through the anterior forearm
and carpal tunnel) and function (innervates many forearm flexors and thenar muscles and supplies
sensation to lateral palmar digits) - which component is the best match?
A. phrenic nerve
B. median nerve
C. common fibular nerve
D. tibial nerve
Correct Answer: B. median nerve
Explanation: The defining role of median nerve is that it innervates many forearm flexors and thenar muscles and supplies
sensation to lateral palmar digits. Its relevant anatomical context is from the brachial plexus through the anterior forearm
and carpal tunnel. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 12. Which process depends most directly on the normal action of oxytocin?
A. Lowers blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake in insulin-sensitive tissues and favoring nutrient storage.
B. Contain endocrine cells that secrete hormones such as insulin and glucagon.
C. Stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection.
D. Releases epinephrine and norepinephrine during sympathetic activation.
Correct Answer: C. Stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection.
Explanation: The defining role of oxytocin is that it stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection. Its relevant
anatomical context is synthesized in hypothalamus and released from posterior pituitary. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
, Question 13. During a sensory physiology review, which process depends most directly on the normal
action of interoceptor?
A. Detects linear acceleration and head tilt mainly in the horizontal plane.
B. Receives vibration from the tympanic membrane and transmits it to the incus.
C. Detects stimuli arising within internal organs and vessels.
D. Compares air conduction with bone conduction to help distinguish conductive from sensorineural hearing patterns.
Correct Answer: C. Detects stimuli arising within internal organs and vessels.
Explanation: The defining role of interoceptor is that it detects stimuli arising within internal organs and vessels. Its
relevant anatomical context is in viscera and vascular structures. The alternatives do not match the tested function and
context as well.
Question 14. Which dysfunction best localizes to sarcolemma when the finding is abnormal propagation of
the muscle action potential?
A. aerobic respiration
B. sarcoplasm
C. sarcolemma
D. smooth muscle
Correct Answer: C. sarcolemma
Explanation: The defining role of sarcolemma is that it forms the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber. Its relevant
anatomical context is at the surface of a muscle fiber. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as
well.
Question 15. During an anatomy and physiology review, which component should be selected for the
function 'depolarizes a postsynaptic cell and increases the probability of reaching threshold'?
A. excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
B. inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
C. temporal summation
D. spatial summation
Correct Answer: A. excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
Explanation: The defining role of excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is that it depolarizes a postsynaptic cell and
increases the probability of reaching threshold. Its relevant anatomical context is in the postsynaptic membrane after
excitatory transmitter action. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 16. What is the primary role of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A. Lowers blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake in insulin-sensitive tissues and favoring nutrient storage.
B. Features insulin resistance with progressive beta-cell dysfunction.
C. Results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells causing absolute insulin deficiency.
D. Raises blood glucose primarily by stimulating hepatic glycogen breakdown and glucose production.
Correct Answer: B. Features insulin resistance with progressive beta-cell dysfunction.
Explanation: The defining role of type 2 diabetes mellitus is that it features insulin resistance with progressive beta-cell
dysfunction. Its relevant anatomical context is as a common metabolic endocrine disorder. The alternatives do not match
the tested function and context as well.
