BIOS 252 Exam 2 Questions and Answers with Rationales |
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
Question 1. Identify the component that is associated with in ventricles, central canal, and subarachnoid
space and that provides buoyancy, cushioning, and chemical stability for the CNS.
A. cerebral aqueduct
B. lateral ventricles
C. cerebrospinal fluid
D. choroid plexus
Correct Answer: C. cerebrospinal fluid
Explanation: The defining role of cerebrospinal fluid is that it provides buoyancy, cushioning, and chemical stability for
the CNS. Its relevant anatomical context is in ventricles, central canal, and subarachnoid space. The alternatives do not
match the tested function and context as well.
Question 2. Which component best matches this physiologic description: detects muscle length and rate of
stretch?
A. muscle spindle
B. filum terminale
C. median nerve
D. conus medullaris
Correct Answer: A. muscle spindle
Explanation: The defining role of muscle spindle is that it detects muscle length and rate of stretch. Its relevant anatomical
context is within skeletal muscle arranged in parallel with extrafusal fibers. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
Question 3. Which answer satisfies both features - association with from the medulla to pharyngeal and
tongue structures and the ability to carries taste from the posterior tongue, pharyngeal sensation, and
parasympathetic output to the parotid gland?
A. optic nerve (CN II)
B. glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
C. abducens nerve (CN VI)
D. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Correct Answer: B. glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
Explanation: The defining role of glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is that it carries taste from the posterior tongue,
pharyngeal sensation, and parasympathetic output to the parotid gland. Its relevant anatomical context is from the medulla
to pharyngeal and tongue structures. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 4. If the activity of brachial plexus is specifically inhibited, which physiologic effect should
decline first?
A. Supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm.
B. Gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh.
C. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
D. Gives rise to nerves supplying much of the posterior thigh, leg, and foot.
Correct Answer: C. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
Explanation: The defining role of brachial plexus is that it gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb. Its relevant
anatomical context is formed mainly by anterior rami C5-T1. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context
as well.
,Question 5. Using both clues - anatomical context (posterior to pons/upper medulla and anterior to
cerebellum) and function (lies between the brainstem and cerebellum and drains CSF toward the
subarachnoid space) - which component is the best match?
A. cerebral aqueduct
B. fourth ventricle
C. lateral ventricles
D. third ventricle
Correct Answer: B. fourth ventricle
Explanation: The defining role of fourth ventricle is that it lies between the brainstem and cerebellum and drains CSF
toward the subarachnoid space. Its relevant anatomical context is posterior to pons/upper medulla and anterior to
cerebellum. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 6. Which listed component is most directly characterized by the following role: carries major
voluntary motor commands from the cerebral cortex toward spinal motor circuits?
A. stretch reflex
B. muscle spindle
C. polysynaptic reflex arc
D. lateral corticospinal tract
Correct Answer: D. lateral corticospinal tract
Explanation: The defining role of lateral corticospinal tract is that it carries major voluntary motor commands from the
cerebral cortex toward spinal motor circuits. Its relevant anatomical context is in the lateral white matter of the spinal
cord. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 7. Which option most accurately identifies the component whose normal role is to increases heart
rate and contractile force when stimulated?
A. beta-1 adrenergic receptor
B. M2 muscarinic receptor
C. alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
D. beta-2 adrenergic receptor
Correct Answer: A. beta-1 adrenergic receptor
Explanation: The defining role of beta-1 adrenergic receptor is that it increases heart rate and contractile force when
stimulated. Its relevant anatomical context is prominently in the heart. The alternatives do not match the tested function
and context as well.
Question 8. Using both anatomical context and physiology, identify the component linked to within
skeletal muscle arranged in parallel with extrafusal fibers that detects muscle length and rate of stretch.
A. muscle spindle
B. lateral corticospinal tract
C. epidural space
D. spinal meninges
Correct Answer: A. muscle spindle
Explanation: The defining role of muscle spindle is that it detects muscle length and rate of stretch. Its relevant anatomical
context is within skeletal muscle arranged in parallel with extrafusal fibers. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
,Question 9. A component is linked to from cochlear and vestibular organs to the brainstem and normally
carries hearing and balance information from the inner ear. Which option identifies it?
A. accessory nerve (CN XI)
B. optic nerve (CN II)
C. oculomotor nerve (CN III)
D. vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
Correct Answer: D. vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
Explanation: The defining role of vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) is that it carries hearing and balance information
from the inner ear. Its relevant anatomical context is from cochlear and vestibular organs to the brainstem. The
alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 10. If the activity of myotome is specifically inhibited, which physiologic effect should decline
first?
A. Coordinates rhythmic alternating motor activity such as stepping.
B. Flexes a limb away from a painful stimulus through a polysynaptic spinal circuit.
C. Make up the cervical portion of the 31 paired spinal nerves.
D. Is a group of muscles receiving major motor contribution from one spinal nerve level.
Correct Answer: D. Is a group of muscles receiving major motor contribution from one spinal nerve level.
Explanation: The defining role of myotome is that it is a group of muscles receiving major motor contribution from one
spinal nerve level. Its relevant anatomical context is in segmental motor distributions. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 11. Which component is associated with between the midbrain and medulla and also has the role
of links major brain regions and contains nuclei important to respiration, facial functions, and other
cranial nerve activities?
A. abducens nerve (CN VI)
B. midbrain
C. pons
D. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Correct Answer: C. pons
Explanation: The defining role of pons is that it links major brain regions and contains nuclei important to respiration,
facial functions, and other cranial nerve activities. Its relevant anatomical context is between the midbrain and medulla.
The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 12. Which listed component is most directly characterized by the following role: gives rise to
nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh?
A. sacral plexus
B. cervical plexus
C. brachial plexus
D. lumbar plexus
Correct Answer: D. lumbar plexus
Explanation: The defining role of lumbar plexus is that it gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh. Its
relevant anatomical context is formed mainly by anterior rami L1-L4. The alternatives do not match the tested function
and context as well.
, Question 13. A student is given the function 'carries major facial somatic sensation and motor fibers to
muscles of mastication'. Which option identifies the component responsible?
A. facial nerve (CN VII)
B. hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
C. olfactory nerve (CN I)
D. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Correct Answer: D. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Explanation: The defining role of trigeminal nerve (CN V) is that it carries major facial somatic sensation and motor fibers
to muscles of mastication. Its relevant anatomical context is from the pons to the face and jaw through three major
divisions. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 14. Which answer satisfies both features - association with associated with the lumbar region and
the ability to make up the lumbar portion of the 31 paired spinal nerves?
A. 5 pairs of sacral spinal nerves
B. 12 pairs of thoracic spinal nerves
C. 31 pairs of spinal nerves
D. 5 pairs of lumbar spinal nerves
Correct Answer: D. 5 pairs of lumbar spinal nerves
Explanation: The defining role of 5 pairs of lumbar spinal nerves is that it make up the lumbar portion of the 31 paired
spinal nerves. Its relevant anatomical context is associated with the lumbar region. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 15. Identify the component that is associated with posterior to the central sulcus and that
processes somatic sensory information and contributes to spatial awareness.
A. cerebellum
B. parietal lobe
C. occipital lobe
D. basal nuclei
Correct Answer: B. parietal lobe
Explanation: The defining role of parietal lobe is that it processes somatic sensory information and contributes to spatial
awareness. Its relevant anatomical context is posterior to the central sulcus. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
Question 16. Which dysfunction best localizes to phrenic nerve when the finding is impaired
diaphragmatic contraction on the affected side?
A. phrenic nerve
B. common fibular nerve
C. tibial nerve
D. ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: A. phrenic nerve
Explanation: The defining role of phrenic nerve is that it provides the primary motor innervation to the diaphragm. Its
relevant anatomical context is arising mainly from C3-C5 through the cervical plexus. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
Question 1. Identify the component that is associated with in ventricles, central canal, and subarachnoid
space and that provides buoyancy, cushioning, and chemical stability for the CNS.
A. cerebral aqueduct
B. lateral ventricles
C. cerebrospinal fluid
D. choroid plexus
Correct Answer: C. cerebrospinal fluid
Explanation: The defining role of cerebrospinal fluid is that it provides buoyancy, cushioning, and chemical stability for
the CNS. Its relevant anatomical context is in ventricles, central canal, and subarachnoid space. The alternatives do not
match the tested function and context as well.
Question 2. Which component best matches this physiologic description: detects muscle length and rate of
stretch?
A. muscle spindle
B. filum terminale
C. median nerve
D. conus medullaris
Correct Answer: A. muscle spindle
Explanation: The defining role of muscle spindle is that it detects muscle length and rate of stretch. Its relevant anatomical
context is within skeletal muscle arranged in parallel with extrafusal fibers. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
Question 3. Which answer satisfies both features - association with from the medulla to pharyngeal and
tongue structures and the ability to carries taste from the posterior tongue, pharyngeal sensation, and
parasympathetic output to the parotid gland?
A. optic nerve (CN II)
B. glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
C. abducens nerve (CN VI)
D. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Correct Answer: B. glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
Explanation: The defining role of glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is that it carries taste from the posterior tongue,
pharyngeal sensation, and parasympathetic output to the parotid gland. Its relevant anatomical context is from the medulla
to pharyngeal and tongue structures. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 4. If the activity of brachial plexus is specifically inhibited, which physiologic effect should
decline first?
A. Supplies portions of the neck and contributes the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm.
B. Gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh.
C. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
D. Gives rise to nerves supplying much of the posterior thigh, leg, and foot.
Correct Answer: C. Gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb.
Explanation: The defining role of brachial plexus is that it gives rise to major nerves of the upper limb. Its relevant
anatomical context is formed mainly by anterior rami C5-T1. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context
as well.
,Question 5. Using both clues - anatomical context (posterior to pons/upper medulla and anterior to
cerebellum) and function (lies between the brainstem and cerebellum and drains CSF toward the
subarachnoid space) - which component is the best match?
A. cerebral aqueduct
B. fourth ventricle
C. lateral ventricles
D. third ventricle
Correct Answer: B. fourth ventricle
Explanation: The defining role of fourth ventricle is that it lies between the brainstem and cerebellum and drains CSF
toward the subarachnoid space. Its relevant anatomical context is posterior to pons/upper medulla and anterior to
cerebellum. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 6. Which listed component is most directly characterized by the following role: carries major
voluntary motor commands from the cerebral cortex toward spinal motor circuits?
A. stretch reflex
B. muscle spindle
C. polysynaptic reflex arc
D. lateral corticospinal tract
Correct Answer: D. lateral corticospinal tract
Explanation: The defining role of lateral corticospinal tract is that it carries major voluntary motor commands from the
cerebral cortex toward spinal motor circuits. Its relevant anatomical context is in the lateral white matter of the spinal
cord. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 7. Which option most accurately identifies the component whose normal role is to increases heart
rate and contractile force when stimulated?
A. beta-1 adrenergic receptor
B. M2 muscarinic receptor
C. alpha-1 adrenergic receptor
D. beta-2 adrenergic receptor
Correct Answer: A. beta-1 adrenergic receptor
Explanation: The defining role of beta-1 adrenergic receptor is that it increases heart rate and contractile force when
stimulated. Its relevant anatomical context is prominently in the heart. The alternatives do not match the tested function
and context as well.
Question 8. Using both anatomical context and physiology, identify the component linked to within
skeletal muscle arranged in parallel with extrafusal fibers that detects muscle length and rate of stretch.
A. muscle spindle
B. lateral corticospinal tract
C. epidural space
D. spinal meninges
Correct Answer: A. muscle spindle
Explanation: The defining role of muscle spindle is that it detects muscle length and rate of stretch. Its relevant anatomical
context is within skeletal muscle arranged in parallel with extrafusal fibers. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
,Question 9. A component is linked to from cochlear and vestibular organs to the brainstem and normally
carries hearing and balance information from the inner ear. Which option identifies it?
A. accessory nerve (CN XI)
B. optic nerve (CN II)
C. oculomotor nerve (CN III)
D. vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
Correct Answer: D. vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
Explanation: The defining role of vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) is that it carries hearing and balance information
from the inner ear. Its relevant anatomical context is from cochlear and vestibular organs to the brainstem. The
alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 10. If the activity of myotome is specifically inhibited, which physiologic effect should decline
first?
A. Coordinates rhythmic alternating motor activity such as stepping.
B. Flexes a limb away from a painful stimulus through a polysynaptic spinal circuit.
C. Make up the cervical portion of the 31 paired spinal nerves.
D. Is a group of muscles receiving major motor contribution from one spinal nerve level.
Correct Answer: D. Is a group of muscles receiving major motor contribution from one spinal nerve level.
Explanation: The defining role of myotome is that it is a group of muscles receiving major motor contribution from one
spinal nerve level. Its relevant anatomical context is in segmental motor distributions. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 11. Which component is associated with between the midbrain and medulla and also has the role
of links major brain regions and contains nuclei important to respiration, facial functions, and other
cranial nerve activities?
A. abducens nerve (CN VI)
B. midbrain
C. pons
D. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Correct Answer: C. pons
Explanation: The defining role of pons is that it links major brain regions and contains nuclei important to respiration,
facial functions, and other cranial nerve activities. Its relevant anatomical context is between the midbrain and medulla.
The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 12. Which listed component is most directly characterized by the following role: gives rise to
nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh?
A. sacral plexus
B. cervical plexus
C. brachial plexus
D. lumbar plexus
Correct Answer: D. lumbar plexus
Explanation: The defining role of lumbar plexus is that it gives rise to nerves supplying the anterior and medial thigh. Its
relevant anatomical context is formed mainly by anterior rami L1-L4. The alternatives do not match the tested function
and context as well.
, Question 13. A student is given the function 'carries major facial somatic sensation and motor fibers to
muscles of mastication'. Which option identifies the component responsible?
A. facial nerve (CN VII)
B. hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
C. olfactory nerve (CN I)
D. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Correct Answer: D. trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Explanation: The defining role of trigeminal nerve (CN V) is that it carries major facial somatic sensation and motor fibers
to muscles of mastication. Its relevant anatomical context is from the pons to the face and jaw through three major
divisions. The alternatives do not match the tested function and context as well.
Question 14. Which answer satisfies both features - association with associated with the lumbar region and
the ability to make up the lumbar portion of the 31 paired spinal nerves?
A. 5 pairs of sacral spinal nerves
B. 12 pairs of thoracic spinal nerves
C. 31 pairs of spinal nerves
D. 5 pairs of lumbar spinal nerves
Correct Answer: D. 5 pairs of lumbar spinal nerves
Explanation: The defining role of 5 pairs of lumbar spinal nerves is that it make up the lumbar portion of the 31 paired
spinal nerves. Its relevant anatomical context is associated with the lumbar region. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
Question 15. Identify the component that is associated with posterior to the central sulcus and that
processes somatic sensory information and contributes to spatial awareness.
A. cerebellum
B. parietal lobe
C. occipital lobe
D. basal nuclei
Correct Answer: B. parietal lobe
Explanation: The defining role of parietal lobe is that it processes somatic sensory information and contributes to spatial
awareness. Its relevant anatomical context is posterior to the central sulcus. The alternatives do not match the tested
function and context as well.
Question 16. Which dysfunction best localizes to phrenic nerve when the finding is impaired
diaphragmatic contraction on the affected side?
A. phrenic nerve
B. common fibular nerve
C. tibial nerve
D. ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: A. phrenic nerve
Explanation: The defining role of phrenic nerve is that it provides the primary motor innervation to the diaphragm. Its
relevant anatomical context is arising mainly from C3-C5 through the cervical plexus. The alternatives do not match the
tested function and context as well.
