NUR 2811 Nursing Capstone Module 10
Exam Prep 100 Original Practice Questions,
Answers & Rationales International College
of Health Sciences | 2026/2027
QUESTIONS 1–25: PRIORITIZATION & MEDICAL-
SURGICAL NURSING
1. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client with chronic arthritis and pain of 6/10
B. Client with new-onset shortness of breath and oxygen saturation of 84%
C. Client requesting discharge instructions
D. Client awaiting a routine dressing change
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute respiratory compromise is an ABC priority and can rapidly become life-
threatening.
2. A client with heart failure develops sudden severe dyspnea and bilateral
crackles. Which complication is most likely?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Dehydration
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Acute pulmonary congestion can produce severe dyspnea and crackles in heart
failure.
3. A client develops sudden unilateral weakness and difficulty speaking. What
should the nurse do?
,A. Give oral fluids
B. Activate the stroke response
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Allow the client to rest
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden focal neurologic deficits require immediate stroke evaluation because
treatment is time-sensitive.
4. Which postoperative finding requires immediate attention?
A. Mild incisional pain
B. Sudden dyspnea and chest pain
C. Mild fatigue
D. Decreased appetite
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea and chest pain after surgery are concerning for pulmonary
embolism.
5. Which finding is most concerning in a client with chest pain?
A. Chest pressure accompanied by diaphoresis
B. Mild pain after eating
C. Tenderness reproducible by palpation
D. Brief discomfort after exercise
Answer: A
Rationale: Chest pressure with diaphoresis may indicate myocardial ischemia and requires
urgent evaluation.
6. Which finding is associated with hypovolemia?
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Bounding pulse
,Answer: A
Rationale: Reduced circulating volume may cause orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, and
poor peripheral perfusion.
7. Which finding suggests fluid overload?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Crackles and peripheral edema
C. Poor skin turgor
D. Orthostatic hypotension
Answer: B
Rationale: Excess fluid commonly produces edema and pulmonary congestion.
8. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills and back pain. What is
the priority action?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Continue the transfusion
D. Administer another unit
Answer: B
Rationale: These findings may represent a transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be
stopped immediately according to protocol.
9. Which intervention helps prevent postoperative atelectasis?
A. Incentive spirometry
B. Prolonged bed rest
C. Avoiding coughing
D. Restricting mobility
Answer: A
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes lung expansion and helps prevent atelectasis.
, 10. Which finding suggests acute kidney injury?
A. Rising serum creatinine
B. Increased renal clearance
C. Normal renal function
D. Increased urine output in every case
Answer: A
Rationale: Rising creatinine is an important indicator of impaired renal filtration.
11. A client with acute kidney injury is at risk for which electrolyte problem?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia in every case
C. Hypernatremia in every case
D. Hypocalcemia only
Answer: A
Rationale: Reduced renal potassium excretion can result in hyperkalemia, which may cause life-
threatening dysrhythmias.
12. Which finding is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Severe hypoglycemia
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Bradycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: DKA causes metabolic acidosis, producing compensatory deep, rapid respirations.
13. A conscious client has a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL. What should the nurse
do?
Exam Prep 100 Original Practice Questions,
Answers & Rationales International College
of Health Sciences | 2026/2027
QUESTIONS 1–25: PRIORITIZATION & MEDICAL-
SURGICAL NURSING
1. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. Client with chronic arthritis and pain of 6/10
B. Client with new-onset shortness of breath and oxygen saturation of 84%
C. Client requesting discharge instructions
D. Client awaiting a routine dressing change
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute respiratory compromise is an ABC priority and can rapidly become life-
threatening.
2. A client with heart failure develops sudden severe dyspnea and bilateral
crackles. Which complication is most likely?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Dehydration
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Acute pulmonary congestion can produce severe dyspnea and crackles in heart
failure.
3. A client develops sudden unilateral weakness and difficulty speaking. What
should the nurse do?
,A. Give oral fluids
B. Activate the stroke response
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Allow the client to rest
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden focal neurologic deficits require immediate stroke evaluation because
treatment is time-sensitive.
4. Which postoperative finding requires immediate attention?
A. Mild incisional pain
B. Sudden dyspnea and chest pain
C. Mild fatigue
D. Decreased appetite
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea and chest pain after surgery are concerning for pulmonary
embolism.
5. Which finding is most concerning in a client with chest pain?
A. Chest pressure accompanied by diaphoresis
B. Mild pain after eating
C. Tenderness reproducible by palpation
D. Brief discomfort after exercise
Answer: A
Rationale: Chest pressure with diaphoresis may indicate myocardial ischemia and requires
urgent evaluation.
6. Which finding is associated with hypovolemia?
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary crackles
D. Bounding pulse
,Answer: A
Rationale: Reduced circulating volume may cause orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, and
poor peripheral perfusion.
7. Which finding suggests fluid overload?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Crackles and peripheral edema
C. Poor skin turgor
D. Orthostatic hypotension
Answer: B
Rationale: Excess fluid commonly produces edema and pulmonary congestion.
8. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills and back pain. What is
the priority action?
A. Increase the infusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion
C. Continue the transfusion
D. Administer another unit
Answer: B
Rationale: These findings may represent a transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be
stopped immediately according to protocol.
9. Which intervention helps prevent postoperative atelectasis?
A. Incentive spirometry
B. Prolonged bed rest
C. Avoiding coughing
D. Restricting mobility
Answer: A
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes lung expansion and helps prevent atelectasis.
, 10. Which finding suggests acute kidney injury?
A. Rising serum creatinine
B. Increased renal clearance
C. Normal renal function
D. Increased urine output in every case
Answer: A
Rationale: Rising creatinine is an important indicator of impaired renal filtration.
11. A client with acute kidney injury is at risk for which electrolyte problem?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia in every case
C. Hypernatremia in every case
D. Hypocalcemia only
Answer: A
Rationale: Reduced renal potassium excretion can result in hyperkalemia, which may cause life-
threatening dysrhythmias.
12. Which finding is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Severe hypoglycemia
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Bradycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: DKA causes metabolic acidosis, producing compensatory deep, rapid respirations.
13. A conscious client has a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL. What should the nurse
do?
