CEA EXAM FULL PRACTICE EXAM
WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED DETAILED
ANSWERS|FREQUENTLY TESTED
QUESTIONS AND
SOLUTIONS|NEWEST|GUARANTEED
PASS 2026/2027
A 70-year-old patient presents to the clinic with dyspnea, palpitations, and fatigue. The patient reports a
2-week history of blackened stools, which the patient attributes to drinking berry juice. Assessment
reveals vital signs of BP = 110/60, P = 100, R = 24; Hgb = 4.5 g/dL; Hct = 16%. What is the most
appropriate immediate intervention?
Send to the emergency room.
Rationale: This patient is experiencing a GI bleed and is in need of emergency treatment due to their
considerably low hemoglobin.
An older adult has a follow-up fasting lipid panel 6 months after making therapeutic lifestyle changes.
LDL=205mg/dL (Normal=<100mg/dL), HDL=44mg/dL, and triglycerides=180mg/dL (Normal-<150mg/dL).
The patient is placed on statin therapy. Two months later, the patient presents for follow-up and
complains of body aches. In addition to creatine phosphokinase (CPK), which of the following tests
should the nurse practitioner order?
Liver transaminase (AST and ALT) levels
Rationale: Due to the potential liver function test elevation found with statin use, LFTs of AST/ALT
should be checked routinely after initiation of therapy
A 56-year-old male on your service has been diagnosed with colon cancer which is localized. What is the
primary management that you should expect to prepare your patient for?
Surgery
Rationale: Surgery is the only curative modality for localized colon cancers. Patients with
progressive/metastatic disease may require chemotherapy/radiation.
A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She also reports
occasional bloody stools. Colonoscopy reveals continuous inflammation from the rectum extending
proximally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ulcerative colitis
Rationale: The presence of inflammatory bowel disease which is present in the patient with bloody stool
1|Page
,suggests ulcerative colitis. This patient should be acutely managed with steroids and chronically with
auto-immune therapy such as biologics and/or DMARDs.
A 63-year-old male presents with a suspected lower GI bleed. He reports passing frank small amounts of
blood several times today. He denies use of NSAID's or blood thinners. What questions would be
important to ask to further differentiate your diagnosis?
All these questions would help determine if this bleed was associated with a potential diverticular bleed
(typically painless), painful bowel movement associated with IBD (UC/Crohn's), and changes in bowel
habit/colonoscopy risk for malignancy.
Which is best performed to assess the risk for fall in an 88-year old adult?
Get up and go test
Rationale: This question is asking you if you understand the different screening to available for Mobility
and fall risk. The global screening assessment, PHQ-2 questionnaire, and clock drawing test have no
clinical significance to mobility. The "get up and go" test is the only option that is a mobility test of these
four.
A frail elderly patient presents with constipation. Which of the following normal physiologic changes
seen with aging is the most likely cause?
Decreased bowel muscle tone
Rationale: The frail, elderly patient will typically have their GI track decrease bile secretion and decrease
absorption of calcium. A decrease in pancreas secretions is not related to presence of constipation,
however, decreased bowel muscle tone certainly does reduce the GI motility and increase the transit
time, thereby increasing the drying of stool in the large intestine which leads to constipation
An elderly patient diagnosed with end-stage lung cancer has been refusing meals, opting instead for ice
cream only. The family is concerned about the patient not getting enough nutrition. The NP:
explains loss of appetite is common at the end of life
Rationale: Death is an uncomfortable topic, and must be handled tactfully. Factual re-orientation to the
terminal state of a patient's condition may be appropriate when unrealistic expectations for their
longevity have been voiced. The reasonable choice in this case is to describe the normalcy of what the
patient is experiencing with their loss of appetite and their terminal state. Testing the patient for
depression has really no clinical bearing on this particular time nor does prescribing methylphenidate.
Ordering a UA and CBC would suggest a concern of a urinary tract infection, and that is not a likely
scenario to describe the patient's existing condition. Support the patient as his advocate by helping the
man enjoy the ice cream he requested.
An elderly patient is being admitted to the skilled nursing facility and is being screened for the risk of
falling. Which of the following information would trigger a complete falls assessment?
A history of two or more falls in the prior year
Rationale: Of these options, the only two that have any clinical bearing on falls are a patient who has a
demonstrated incident of two or more falls in a year and a patient who has a altered cognition, such as
the patient who is living alone and has mild dementia. Of the two options, the clear winner is the patient
2|Page
,who has already demonstrated to fall in the last year and they should certainly be a valuated more
thoroughly with a complete fall assessment.
The management of COPD in the elderly is best guided by:
symptomatology.
Rationale: Symptomatology is what guides COPD management since the severity and frequency of
symptoms will warrant changes and additions to medications as exacerbations present.
Although very useful tool for chronic management and baseline status, spirometry does not typically
dictate therapy, rather diagnose the disease state itself. Our blood gases may be used for clinically
correlate severity during an exacerbation, and radiologic imaging may showcase severity of stable
chronic finding such as somatic, lung tissue or bullae.
Which of the following is an example of implied consent?
The patient collapses while having a myocardial infarction in the hospital cafeteria. Bystanders
witnessed the patient clutch his chest, say "my chest", then collapse. They start CPR and initiate the
emergency care system to transport the patient for care in the emergency department.
Rationale: Surgical consent is by definition "informed" when the risks and benefits are discussed as with
the patients undergoing surgery and a chest tube, and 2 person emergency consent is described with
the patient with altered mental status. The collapsed patient reflects a clear inability to care for oneself
and care is being performed under the assumption of what is implied as what any reasonable person
would want.
Which of the following refers to the primary access point of medical care patients are encouraged to use
to aid in providing continuity and reduction of cost per the Affordable Care Act?
The Medical Home
Rationale: The medical home reduces cost by providing continuity of care, reducing overtesting,
duplicate testing, and aids with longitudinal management of the patient. The other options all increase
these cost-burdening elements and should be avoided unless care through the medical home is not a
reasonable or appropriate option.
A patient states they do not want to have any further medical care and wishes to leave against medical
advice. Unknown to you, the healthcare tech then held their arm down to get an IV catheter placed
against their will. The healthcare tech is at risk of being charged with which of the following:
Battery
Rationale: Assault refers to the risk of a harm to others, whereas battery refers to the actual act of that
harm.
Which act formed in 1996 was created to protect patient health information from being disclosed
without the patient's consent or knowledge?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Rationale: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) is a federal law that
required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient health information from being
disclosed without the patient's consent or knowledge. FERPA was aimed at educational protections
similar to HIPAA but for education. COBRA is for continuing insurance benefits after separation from
3|Page
, employment. EMTALA is to guarantee provision of emergency treatment for stabilization or for those in
active labor.
An 87-year-old female has a history of ovarian cancer. She recently completed the tenth of 26
chemotherapy treatments. She informs the nurse practitioner that she plans to stop chemotherapy; she
has lived a good life and is ready to die. She is alert and very active, and lives with her son. The family is
determined that the patient will complete the chemotherapy. The nurse practitioner's most appropriate
action is to:
support the patient's decision.
Rationale: Good nursing practice supports advocacy at all times for the patient, even when the patient's
family disagrees. Supporting their decision to self-direct their care is your primary obligation.
Your patient presents with complaint of a persistent itch in one eye and says it feels like gravel is in their
eye. On brief inspection, there is no obvious trauma. What can the prudent nurse practitioner use to aid
in diagnosis of this patient's chief complaint?
Fluorescein sodium
Rationale: Fluorescein stain is the best way to evaluate the surface of the cornea for abrasion or trauma.
Magnesium salt is not used on the eye. Tetracaine is an anesthetic for the eye, but it does not aid in
diagnosis, rather symptom management. Ophthalmoscope use should be tangentially to the cornea and
sclera, not directly of the fundus.
A patient present with blood present in the anterior portion of their eye covering the lower half of their
iris. With which of the following diagnoses is this most consistent?
Hyphema
Rationale: Hyphema is defined as red blood cells in the anterior portion of the eye between the cornea
and iris. Subconjunctival hemorrhage is commonly mistaken for this and is a hemorrhage lateral to the
iris in the conjunctiva of the eye. Globe rupture does not present with such specific findings unless
hyphema is also included in the trauma, and acute angle glaucoma is not associated with blood in the
anterior vitreous; however, hyphema may lead to this if the trabecular network were to get clogged. For
this reason, close follow up is required for these patients.
An elderly patient has throbbing pain in the left eye, blurred vision, marked photophobia, and redness
around the iris. What is the nurse practitioner's initial diagnosis?
Iritis
Rationale: Redness around the iris is a classic descriptor of iritis, whereas conjunctival erythema and
injection is suggestive of conjunctivitis. Sjogren syndrome is characterized by dry eyes, and glaucoma
typically shares the symptoms noted above but does not have circular redness around the iris.
An older adult female reports nasal congestion, clear nasal secretions, and a post-nasal drip since going
through menopause. After a thorough examination reveals no significant abnormalities, the nurse
practitioner diagnoses the patient with:
Vasomotor rhinitis
Rationale: Hormones can affect how the body reacts to environmental changes, like humidity and
temperature. Menopause can trigger vasomotor rhinitis (VMR), also known as non-allergic rhinitis.
4|Page
WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED DETAILED
ANSWERS|FREQUENTLY TESTED
QUESTIONS AND
SOLUTIONS|NEWEST|GUARANTEED
PASS 2026/2027
A 70-year-old patient presents to the clinic with dyspnea, palpitations, and fatigue. The patient reports a
2-week history of blackened stools, which the patient attributes to drinking berry juice. Assessment
reveals vital signs of BP = 110/60, P = 100, R = 24; Hgb = 4.5 g/dL; Hct = 16%. What is the most
appropriate immediate intervention?
Send to the emergency room.
Rationale: This patient is experiencing a GI bleed and is in need of emergency treatment due to their
considerably low hemoglobin.
An older adult has a follow-up fasting lipid panel 6 months after making therapeutic lifestyle changes.
LDL=205mg/dL (Normal=<100mg/dL), HDL=44mg/dL, and triglycerides=180mg/dL (Normal-<150mg/dL).
The patient is placed on statin therapy. Two months later, the patient presents for follow-up and
complains of body aches. In addition to creatine phosphokinase (CPK), which of the following tests
should the nurse practitioner order?
Liver transaminase (AST and ALT) levels
Rationale: Due to the potential liver function test elevation found with statin use, LFTs of AST/ALT
should be checked routinely after initiation of therapy
A 56-year-old male on your service has been diagnosed with colon cancer which is localized. What is the
primary management that you should expect to prepare your patient for?
Surgery
Rationale: Surgery is the only curative modality for localized colon cancers. Patients with
progressive/metastatic disease may require chemotherapy/radiation.
A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She also reports
occasional bloody stools. Colonoscopy reveals continuous inflammation from the rectum extending
proximally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ulcerative colitis
Rationale: The presence of inflammatory bowel disease which is present in the patient with bloody stool
1|Page
,suggests ulcerative colitis. This patient should be acutely managed with steroids and chronically with
auto-immune therapy such as biologics and/or DMARDs.
A 63-year-old male presents with a suspected lower GI bleed. He reports passing frank small amounts of
blood several times today. He denies use of NSAID's or blood thinners. What questions would be
important to ask to further differentiate your diagnosis?
All these questions would help determine if this bleed was associated with a potential diverticular bleed
(typically painless), painful bowel movement associated with IBD (UC/Crohn's), and changes in bowel
habit/colonoscopy risk for malignancy.
Which is best performed to assess the risk for fall in an 88-year old adult?
Get up and go test
Rationale: This question is asking you if you understand the different screening to available for Mobility
and fall risk. The global screening assessment, PHQ-2 questionnaire, and clock drawing test have no
clinical significance to mobility. The "get up and go" test is the only option that is a mobility test of these
four.
A frail elderly patient presents with constipation. Which of the following normal physiologic changes
seen with aging is the most likely cause?
Decreased bowel muscle tone
Rationale: The frail, elderly patient will typically have their GI track decrease bile secretion and decrease
absorption of calcium. A decrease in pancreas secretions is not related to presence of constipation,
however, decreased bowel muscle tone certainly does reduce the GI motility and increase the transit
time, thereby increasing the drying of stool in the large intestine which leads to constipation
An elderly patient diagnosed with end-stage lung cancer has been refusing meals, opting instead for ice
cream only. The family is concerned about the patient not getting enough nutrition. The NP:
explains loss of appetite is common at the end of life
Rationale: Death is an uncomfortable topic, and must be handled tactfully. Factual re-orientation to the
terminal state of a patient's condition may be appropriate when unrealistic expectations for their
longevity have been voiced. The reasonable choice in this case is to describe the normalcy of what the
patient is experiencing with their loss of appetite and their terminal state. Testing the patient for
depression has really no clinical bearing on this particular time nor does prescribing methylphenidate.
Ordering a UA and CBC would suggest a concern of a urinary tract infection, and that is not a likely
scenario to describe the patient's existing condition. Support the patient as his advocate by helping the
man enjoy the ice cream he requested.
An elderly patient is being admitted to the skilled nursing facility and is being screened for the risk of
falling. Which of the following information would trigger a complete falls assessment?
A history of two or more falls in the prior year
Rationale: Of these options, the only two that have any clinical bearing on falls are a patient who has a
demonstrated incident of two or more falls in a year and a patient who has a altered cognition, such as
the patient who is living alone and has mild dementia. Of the two options, the clear winner is the patient
2|Page
,who has already demonstrated to fall in the last year and they should certainly be a valuated more
thoroughly with a complete fall assessment.
The management of COPD in the elderly is best guided by:
symptomatology.
Rationale: Symptomatology is what guides COPD management since the severity and frequency of
symptoms will warrant changes and additions to medications as exacerbations present.
Although very useful tool for chronic management and baseline status, spirometry does not typically
dictate therapy, rather diagnose the disease state itself. Our blood gases may be used for clinically
correlate severity during an exacerbation, and radiologic imaging may showcase severity of stable
chronic finding such as somatic, lung tissue or bullae.
Which of the following is an example of implied consent?
The patient collapses while having a myocardial infarction in the hospital cafeteria. Bystanders
witnessed the patient clutch his chest, say "my chest", then collapse. They start CPR and initiate the
emergency care system to transport the patient for care in the emergency department.
Rationale: Surgical consent is by definition "informed" when the risks and benefits are discussed as with
the patients undergoing surgery and a chest tube, and 2 person emergency consent is described with
the patient with altered mental status. The collapsed patient reflects a clear inability to care for oneself
and care is being performed under the assumption of what is implied as what any reasonable person
would want.
Which of the following refers to the primary access point of medical care patients are encouraged to use
to aid in providing continuity and reduction of cost per the Affordable Care Act?
The Medical Home
Rationale: The medical home reduces cost by providing continuity of care, reducing overtesting,
duplicate testing, and aids with longitudinal management of the patient. The other options all increase
these cost-burdening elements and should be avoided unless care through the medical home is not a
reasonable or appropriate option.
A patient states they do not want to have any further medical care and wishes to leave against medical
advice. Unknown to you, the healthcare tech then held their arm down to get an IV catheter placed
against their will. The healthcare tech is at risk of being charged with which of the following:
Battery
Rationale: Assault refers to the risk of a harm to others, whereas battery refers to the actual act of that
harm.
Which act formed in 1996 was created to protect patient health information from being disclosed
without the patient's consent or knowledge?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Rationale: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) is a federal law that
required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient health information from being
disclosed without the patient's consent or knowledge. FERPA was aimed at educational protections
similar to HIPAA but for education. COBRA is for continuing insurance benefits after separation from
3|Page
, employment. EMTALA is to guarantee provision of emergency treatment for stabilization or for those in
active labor.
An 87-year-old female has a history of ovarian cancer. She recently completed the tenth of 26
chemotherapy treatments. She informs the nurse practitioner that she plans to stop chemotherapy; she
has lived a good life and is ready to die. She is alert and very active, and lives with her son. The family is
determined that the patient will complete the chemotherapy. The nurse practitioner's most appropriate
action is to:
support the patient's decision.
Rationale: Good nursing practice supports advocacy at all times for the patient, even when the patient's
family disagrees. Supporting their decision to self-direct their care is your primary obligation.
Your patient presents with complaint of a persistent itch in one eye and says it feels like gravel is in their
eye. On brief inspection, there is no obvious trauma. What can the prudent nurse practitioner use to aid
in diagnosis of this patient's chief complaint?
Fluorescein sodium
Rationale: Fluorescein stain is the best way to evaluate the surface of the cornea for abrasion or trauma.
Magnesium salt is not used on the eye. Tetracaine is an anesthetic for the eye, but it does not aid in
diagnosis, rather symptom management. Ophthalmoscope use should be tangentially to the cornea and
sclera, not directly of the fundus.
A patient present with blood present in the anterior portion of their eye covering the lower half of their
iris. With which of the following diagnoses is this most consistent?
Hyphema
Rationale: Hyphema is defined as red blood cells in the anterior portion of the eye between the cornea
and iris. Subconjunctival hemorrhage is commonly mistaken for this and is a hemorrhage lateral to the
iris in the conjunctiva of the eye. Globe rupture does not present with such specific findings unless
hyphema is also included in the trauma, and acute angle glaucoma is not associated with blood in the
anterior vitreous; however, hyphema may lead to this if the trabecular network were to get clogged. For
this reason, close follow up is required for these patients.
An elderly patient has throbbing pain in the left eye, blurred vision, marked photophobia, and redness
around the iris. What is the nurse practitioner's initial diagnosis?
Iritis
Rationale: Redness around the iris is a classic descriptor of iritis, whereas conjunctival erythema and
injection is suggestive of conjunctivitis. Sjogren syndrome is characterized by dry eyes, and glaucoma
typically shares the symptoms noted above but does not have circular redness around the iris.
An older adult female reports nasal congestion, clear nasal secretions, and a post-nasal drip since going
through menopause. After a thorough examination reveals no significant abnormalities, the nurse
practitioner diagnoses the patient with:
Vasomotor rhinitis
Rationale: Hormones can affect how the body reacts to environmental changes, like humidity and
temperature. Menopause can trigger vasomotor rhinitis (VMR), also known as non-allergic rhinitis.
4|Page
