NU 553-Exam test-Questions and answers | Updated
RATED A+ | NEW 2026|Purdue Global University
Question 1. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient with suspected heart failure.
Which of the following findings is most specific for left-sided heart failure?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Peripheral edema
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D. Hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a classic symptom of left-sided heart failure due
to pulmonary congestion. Jugular venous distention (A), peripheral edema (B), and
hepatomegaly (D) are more characteristic of right-sided heart failure.
Question 2. Which of the following medications is a first-line treatment for a
patient with newly diagnosed hypertension and diabetes?
A. Atenolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Diltiazem
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are first-line for hypertension in patients with diabetes
due to their renoprotective effects. Atenolol (A) is not first-line unless there is a specific
indication. Diltiazem (C) is not first-line. Hydrochlorothiazide (D) may be used but ACE
inhibitors are preferred.
Question 3. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain,
fever, and a rigid abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Diverticulitis
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A rigid abdomen with sudden severe pain and fever suggests peritonitis, often from a
perforated peptic ulcer. Cholecystitis (A) typically causes right upper quadrant pain.
Pancreatitis (C) causes epigastric pain radiating to the back. Diverticulitis (D) causes left
lower quadrant pain.
Question 4. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test
for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
A. Chest X-ray
B. D-dimer
C. CT pulmonary angiography
D. Ventilation-perfusion scan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
D-dimer is a sensitive screening test for pulmonary embolism; if negative, PE is unlikely.
Chest X-ray (A) is often normal. CT pulmonary angiography (C) is confirmatory but not
initial. V/Q scan (D) is used when CT is contraindicated.
Question 5. A nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin therapy. Which of the
following statements by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach and kale."
B. "I will use a soft toothbrush and electric razor."
C. "I will take aspirin for headaches."
D. "I will have my INR checked regularly."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Aspirin increases bleeding risk when taken with warfarin. The other statements are
correct: avoiding vitamin K-rich foods (A), using soft toothbrush/electric razor (B), and
regular INR monitoring (D) are appropriate.
Question 6. A patient with type 1 diabetes is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of
the following is the most appropriate initial treatment if the patient is conscious?
A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
B. Give 15 grams of oral glucose
,C. Start an IV infusion of dextrose
D. Administer insulin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
For a conscious patient with hypoglycemia, oral glucose is the first-line treatment.
Glucagon (A) is for unconscious patients or those unable to swallow. IV dextrose (C) is
for severe cases. Insulin (D) would worsen hypoglycemia.
Question 7. Which of the following is a hallmark sign of acute respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased pulmonary compliance
B. Refractory hypoxemia
C. Hypercapnia
D. Decreased work of breathing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
ARDS is characterized by refractory hypoxemia that does not improve with
supplemental oxygen. Compliance is decreased (A). Hypercapnia (C) may occur late.
Work of breathing is increased (D).
Question 8. A nurse is assessing a patient with Cushing's syndrome. Which of the
following findings is expected?
A. Hypotension
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Moon face
D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol, leading to moon face, truncal
obesity, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. Hypotension (A) and hyperkalemia (B) are
seen in Addison's disease. Weight loss (D) is not typical.
Question 9. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a randomized
controlled trial (RCT)?
, A. To describe a phenomenon
B. To establish causality
C. To explore lived experiences
D. To generate hypotheses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
RCTs are experimental designs that can establish cause-and-effect relationships.
Descriptive studies (A) describe phenomena. Qualitative studies (C) explore experiences.
Exploratory studies (D) generate hypotheses.
Question 10. A nurse researcher is conducting a study to determine the prevalence
of obesity in a community. Which type of study design is most appropriate?
A. Experimental
B. Quasi-experimental
C. Descriptive
D. Correlational
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A descriptive study is used to determine prevalence. Experimental (A) and quasi-
experimental (B) designs test interventions. Correlational (D) examines relationships.
Question 11. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention
strategy?
A. Immunization
B. Mammography
C. Rehabilitation
D. Health education
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Secondary prevention aims to detect disease early. Mammography screens for breast
cancer. Immunization (A) is primary prevention. Rehabilitation (C) is tertiary. Health
education (D) is primary.
Question 12. A patient is prescribed metformin. Which of the following is a serious
adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
RATED A+ | NEW 2026|Purdue Global University
Question 1. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient with suspected heart failure.
Which of the following findings is most specific for left-sided heart failure?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Peripheral edema
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D. Hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a classic symptom of left-sided heart failure due
to pulmonary congestion. Jugular venous distention (A), peripheral edema (B), and
hepatomegaly (D) are more characteristic of right-sided heart failure.
Question 2. Which of the following medications is a first-line treatment for a
patient with newly diagnosed hypertension and diabetes?
A. Atenolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Diltiazem
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are first-line for hypertension in patients with diabetes
due to their renoprotective effects. Atenolol (A) is not first-line unless there is a specific
indication. Diltiazem (C) is not first-line. Hydrochlorothiazide (D) may be used but ACE
inhibitors are preferred.
Question 3. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain,
fever, and a rigid abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Diverticulitis
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A rigid abdomen with sudden severe pain and fever suggests peritonitis, often from a
perforated peptic ulcer. Cholecystitis (A) typically causes right upper quadrant pain.
Pancreatitis (C) causes epigastric pain radiating to the back. Diverticulitis (D) causes left
lower quadrant pain.
Question 4. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test
for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
A. Chest X-ray
B. D-dimer
C. CT pulmonary angiography
D. Ventilation-perfusion scan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
D-dimer is a sensitive screening test for pulmonary embolism; if negative, PE is unlikely.
Chest X-ray (A) is often normal. CT pulmonary angiography (C) is confirmatory but not
initial. V/Q scan (D) is used when CT is contraindicated.
Question 5. A nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin therapy. Which of the
following statements by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will avoid eating large amounts of spinach and kale."
B. "I will use a soft toothbrush and electric razor."
C. "I will take aspirin for headaches."
D. "I will have my INR checked regularly."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Aspirin increases bleeding risk when taken with warfarin. The other statements are
correct: avoiding vitamin K-rich foods (A), using soft toothbrush/electric razor (B), and
regular INR monitoring (D) are appropriate.
Question 6. A patient with type 1 diabetes is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of
the following is the most appropriate initial treatment if the patient is conscious?
A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly
B. Give 15 grams of oral glucose
,C. Start an IV infusion of dextrose
D. Administer insulin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
For a conscious patient with hypoglycemia, oral glucose is the first-line treatment.
Glucagon (A) is for unconscious patients or those unable to swallow. IV dextrose (C) is
for severe cases. Insulin (D) would worsen hypoglycemia.
Question 7. Which of the following is a hallmark sign of acute respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased pulmonary compliance
B. Refractory hypoxemia
C. Hypercapnia
D. Decreased work of breathing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
ARDS is characterized by refractory hypoxemia that does not improve with
supplemental oxygen. Compliance is decreased (A). Hypercapnia (C) may occur late.
Work of breathing is increased (D).
Question 8. A nurse is assessing a patient with Cushing's syndrome. Which of the
following findings is expected?
A. Hypotension
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Moon face
D. Weight loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol, leading to moon face, truncal
obesity, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. Hypotension (A) and hyperkalemia (B) are
seen in Addison's disease. Weight loss (D) is not typical.
Question 9. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a randomized
controlled trial (RCT)?
, A. To describe a phenomenon
B. To establish causality
C. To explore lived experiences
D. To generate hypotheses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
RCTs are experimental designs that can establish cause-and-effect relationships.
Descriptive studies (A) describe phenomena. Qualitative studies (C) explore experiences.
Exploratory studies (D) generate hypotheses.
Question 10. A nurse researcher is conducting a study to determine the prevalence
of obesity in a community. Which type of study design is most appropriate?
A. Experimental
B. Quasi-experimental
C. Descriptive
D. Correlational
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A descriptive study is used to determine prevalence. Experimental (A) and quasi-
experimental (B) designs test interventions. Correlational (D) examines relationships.
Question 11. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention
strategy?
A. Immunization
B. Mammography
C. Rehabilitation
D. Health education
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Secondary prevention aims to detect disease early. Mammography screens for breast
cancer. Immunization (A) is primary prevention. Rehabilitation (C) is tertiary. Health
education (D) is primary.
Question 12. A patient is prescribed metformin. Which of the following is a serious
adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?
