NUR 210 Exam 2 V2 | NUR 210 Pharmacology | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (NUR 210 Exam 2) | Galen
1. A nurse is preparing to administer Digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which
assessment finding would require the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the
provider?
A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
B. Apical pulse of 52 beats per minute
C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
D. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. The nurse must assess
the apical pulse for one full minute prior to administration. If the pulse is below 60 beats
per minute in an adult, the dose should be withheld to prevent bradycardia.
2. A patient is prescribed Furosemide for the treatment of peripheral edema. Which
electrolyte imbalance is the patient at greatest risk for developing?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of water, sodium, and
potassium. Patients taking loop diuretics are at significant risk for hypokalemia, which can
lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Nurses should monitor serum potassium levels and encourage
the intake of potassium-rich foods.
3. A nurse is educating a patient who has just been prescribed Albuterol via a metered-dose
inhaler. What should the nurse include as a common side effect of this medication?
A. Bradycardia
B. Drowsiness and lethargy
C. Tachycardia and tremors
D. Increased appetite
Answer: C
,Rationale: Albuterol is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist used to cause bronchodilation. Because
it can also stimulate beta-1 receptors in the heart, common side effects include tachycardia
and palpitations. Patients may also experience tremors or nervousness due to the
sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
4. A patient diagnosed with hypertension is prescribed Spironolactone. Which dietary
instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
A. Avoid using salt substitutes containing potassium
B. Increase intake of bananas and orange juice
C. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day
D. Take the medication on an empty stomach
Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks aldosterone. Unlike
loop diuretics, it causes the body to retain potassium, placing the patient at risk for
hyperkalemia. Using salt substitutes, which are often made of potassium chloride, can
dangerously elevate potassium levels.
5. A patient is receiving Vancomycin intravenously for an MRSA infection. During the infusion,
the patient develops a bright red rash on the neck and chest. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
A. Slow the rate of the infusion
B. Stop the infusion immediately
C. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously
D. Document the finding as an expected reaction
Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is likely experiencing ‘Red Man Syndrome,’ which is a rate-
dependent infusion reaction characterized by flushing and a rash. Unlike a true allergic
reaction, it is managed by slowing the infusion rate rather than stopping it entirely. The
nurse should also notify the provider and monitor blood pressure for hypotension.
6. Which laboratory value must be monitored closely for a patient receiving a continuous
Heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count
D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
, Answer: D
Rationale: The aPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of Heparin therapy.
The goal is typically to maintain the aPTT between 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control
value. Nurses must monitor this value frequently and adjust the infusion rate based on the
facility’s heparin protocol.
7. A patient is taking Lisinopril for hypertension. The patient reports the development of a
persistent, dry, non-productive cough. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. This is a sign of an upper respiratory infection.
B. You should take an over-the-counter cough suppressant.
C. A cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to your doctor.
D. The cough will likely resolve on its own in 2 to 3 days.
Answer: C
Rationale: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like Lisinopril can cause a
buildup of bradykinin, leading to a persistent dry cough. This is a well-known side effect
that often necessitates switching the patient to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB).
The nurse must educate the patient that the cough is drug-related and will not go away
without discontinuing the med.
8. What is the primary mechanism of action for Nitroglycerin when used in the treatment of
angina?
A. Increased heart rate to improve output
B. Constriction of peripheral vessels to increase blood pressure
C. Vasodilation of veins and coronary arteries
D. Blocking calcium channels in the heart
Answer: C
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a nitrate that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle,
primarily in the venous system, but also in the coronary arteries. This results in decreased
preload and improved blood flow to the myocardium. By reducing the workload of the
heart, it effectively relieves chest pain associated with ischemia.
9. A patient is prescribed Rifampin as part of a multi-drug regimen for tuberculosis. Which
side effect should the nurse inform the patient to expect?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Extreme sensitivity to sunlight
C. Orange-red discoloration of urine and tears
Rationale (NUR 210 Exam 2) | Galen
1. A nurse is preparing to administer Digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which
assessment finding would require the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the
provider?
A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
B. Apical pulse of 52 beats per minute
C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
D. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. The nurse must assess
the apical pulse for one full minute prior to administration. If the pulse is below 60 beats
per minute in an adult, the dose should be withheld to prevent bradycardia.
2. A patient is prescribed Furosemide for the treatment of peripheral edema. Which
electrolyte imbalance is the patient at greatest risk for developing?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of water, sodium, and
potassium. Patients taking loop diuretics are at significant risk for hypokalemia, which can
lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Nurses should monitor serum potassium levels and encourage
the intake of potassium-rich foods.
3. A nurse is educating a patient who has just been prescribed Albuterol via a metered-dose
inhaler. What should the nurse include as a common side effect of this medication?
A. Bradycardia
B. Drowsiness and lethargy
C. Tachycardia and tremors
D. Increased appetite
Answer: C
,Rationale: Albuterol is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist used to cause bronchodilation. Because
it can also stimulate beta-1 receptors in the heart, common side effects include tachycardia
and palpitations. Patients may also experience tremors or nervousness due to the
sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
4. A patient diagnosed with hypertension is prescribed Spironolactone. Which dietary
instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
A. Avoid using salt substitutes containing potassium
B. Increase intake of bananas and orange juice
C. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day
D. Take the medication on an empty stomach
Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks aldosterone. Unlike
loop diuretics, it causes the body to retain potassium, placing the patient at risk for
hyperkalemia. Using salt substitutes, which are often made of potassium chloride, can
dangerously elevate potassium levels.
5. A patient is receiving Vancomycin intravenously for an MRSA infection. During the infusion,
the patient develops a bright red rash on the neck and chest. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
A. Slow the rate of the infusion
B. Stop the infusion immediately
C. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously
D. Document the finding as an expected reaction
Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is likely experiencing ‘Red Man Syndrome,’ which is a rate-
dependent infusion reaction characterized by flushing and a rash. Unlike a true allergic
reaction, it is managed by slowing the infusion rate rather than stopping it entirely. The
nurse should also notify the provider and monitor blood pressure for hypotension.
6. Which laboratory value must be monitored closely for a patient receiving a continuous
Heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count
D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
, Answer: D
Rationale: The aPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of Heparin therapy.
The goal is typically to maintain the aPTT between 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control
value. Nurses must monitor this value frequently and adjust the infusion rate based on the
facility’s heparin protocol.
7. A patient is taking Lisinopril for hypertension. The patient reports the development of a
persistent, dry, non-productive cough. What is the nurse’s best response?
A. This is a sign of an upper respiratory infection.
B. You should take an over-the-counter cough suppressant.
C. A cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to your doctor.
D. The cough will likely resolve on its own in 2 to 3 days.
Answer: C
Rationale: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like Lisinopril can cause a
buildup of bradykinin, leading to a persistent dry cough. This is a well-known side effect
that often necessitates switching the patient to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB).
The nurse must educate the patient that the cough is drug-related and will not go away
without discontinuing the med.
8. What is the primary mechanism of action for Nitroglycerin when used in the treatment of
angina?
A. Increased heart rate to improve output
B. Constriction of peripheral vessels to increase blood pressure
C. Vasodilation of veins and coronary arteries
D. Blocking calcium channels in the heart
Answer: C
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a nitrate that works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle,
primarily in the venous system, but also in the coronary arteries. This results in decreased
preload and improved blood flow to the myocardium. By reducing the workload of the
heart, it effectively relieves chest pain associated with ischemia.
9. A patient is prescribed Rifampin as part of a multi-drug regimen for tuberculosis. Which
side effect should the nurse inform the patient to expect?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Extreme sensitivity to sunlight
C. Orange-red discoloration of urine and tears
