MATE RN A L H E A LTH C O U RSE A SSE SSME N T ·
VERIFIED ANSWERS
NSG 3500 Exam 2
Maternal Health
A comprehensive 100-question practice examination
spanning antepartum assessment, maternal-fetal
physiology, prenatal screening and genetics, high-risk
pregnancy conditions, intrapartum fetal monitoring,
infections and teratogens, and psychosocial and
ethical considerations, with verified answers and
detailed rationales.
Galen College of Nursing · Questions and
Answers (Verified Answers)
ED I T I ON · 8 S ECT I ONS · 100 QUES T I ONS
,NSG 3500 Exam 2 | Maternal Health Galen College of Nursing -
NSG 3500 Exam 2 | Maternal Health (2026/2027) | Galen College
of Nursing
Maternal Health Course Assessment | Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) | Academic
Cycle | 100 Questions in 8 Sections
Verification and Usage Notes: Every question in this examination is presented with one clearly marked verified answer
and a rationale that explains the maternal-newborn clinical reasoning behind the keyed response and the failure of each
distractor, aligned with the Galen College of Nursing NSG 3500 maternal health course objectives and current ACOG and
AWHONN practice standards for the cycle. The cognitive mix follows the course blueprint: approximately
30 percent recall of maternal health concepts, 50 percent application to clinical scenarios and medication decision-making,
and 20 percent analysis of competing conditions, fetal monitoring tracings, and prioritization judgments. NCLEX-style
formats appear throughout, including which finding requires immediate follow-up, which client the nurse should assess
first, medication administration scenarios for magnesium sulfate, insulin, antihypertensives, and Rho(D) immune globulin,
laboratory value interpretation, and fetal monitoring strip description. Commonly confused concept pairs such as
preeclampsia versus gestational hypertension, placenta previa versus abruptio placentae, screening versus diagnostic tests,
early versus late versus variable decelerations, and magnesium toxicity versus therapeutic effect appear throughout.
Answer choices are distributed evenly across positions A through D so that candidates cannot pattern-match, and each
rationale may be used as a self-study explanation when an item is missed.
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 15
Antepartum Care and Maternal Assessment (Prenatal Care, GTPAL, Fundal Height, and Fetal Assessment)
Q1: A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client who is currently pregnant at 30 weeks' gestation. Her
obstetric history includes delivery of twins at 36 weeks' gestation (both twins are living), one singleton
delivered at 39 weeks' gestation (living), and one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks' gestation. Which
GTPAL classification should the nurse document for this client?
A. 4-2-1-0-3
B. 3-1-1-1-3
C. 4-1-1-1-3 [CORRECT]
D. 4-1-1-1-2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gravida is 4 (the current pregnancy plus three prior pregnancies). Term is 1 (only the 39-week birth),
preterm is 1 (the twin birth at 36 weeks counts as ONE delivery regardless of the number of infants), abortion is 1,
and living children number 3 (both twins plus the singleton). Distractors that show 4-2-1-0-3 incorrectly count twins
as two term births and drop the abortion; 3-1-1-1-3 omits the current pregnancy from the gravida count.
Maternal Health Course Assessment Preparation 1
,NSG 3500 Exam 2 | Maternal Health Galen College of Nursing -
Q2: A client with regular 28-day menstrual cycles presents for her first prenatal visit. Her last menstrual
period began on March 15, 2026. Using Naegele's rule, which expected date of birth (EDB) should the
nurse calculate?
A. December 22, 2026 [CORRECT]
B. December 8, 2026
C. January 1, 2027
D. November 22, 2026
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's rule adds 7 days and subtracts 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period: March
15 plus 7 days equals March 22, and subtracting 3 months gives December 22, 2026. Choosing January 1, 2027
results from adding 7 days without subtracting months, and November 22 results from subtracting 4 months.
Q3: A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the classification of signs of pregnancy. Which
assessment finding is a POSITIVE (diagnostic) sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Chadwick sign
C. A positive urine pregnancy test
D. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Only positive signs can be attributed solely to the fetus: ultrasound visualization of the fetus, fetal heart
tones auscultated by the examiner, and fetal movement palpated by the examiner. Amenorrhea and Chadwick sign
are presumptive signs, and a positive urine or serum test is a probable sign because other conditions can elevate
hCG.
Q4: A client at 20 weeks' gestation asks the nurse where the top of her uterus should be felt. Which response
by the nurse is accurate?
A. Just above the symphysis pubis
B. At the level of the umbilicus [CORRECT]
C. Halfway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
D. Just below the xiphoid process
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 20 weeks the fundus is palpable at the umbilicus; it reaches just above the symphysis pubis around 12
to 16 weeks and the xiphoid process near 36 weeks. After 20 weeks, fundal height in centimeters approximates
gestational age in weeks, so a measurement much smaller than 20 cm warrants evaluation for inaccurate dating or
fetal growth restriction.
Q5: A client at 18 weeks' gestation asks the nurse how often she will return for prenatal visits if her pregnancy
remains low risk. Which schedule should the nurse describe?
A. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly [CORRECT]
B. Every 2 weeks until 28 weeks, then weekly until birth
C. Monthly until 32 weeks, then every 2 weeks until birth
D. Every 3 weeks throughout the entire pregnancy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The traditional low-risk schedule is visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks from 28 to 36
weeks, and weekly from 36 weeks until birth, with visits intensified as risks of hypertensive disorders, growth
restriction, and preterm labor rise. Schedules that skip the biweekly 28-to-36-week window leave preeclampsia and
fetal well-being surveillance gaps.
Maternal Health Course Assessment Preparation 2
, NSG 3500 Exam 2 | Maternal Health Galen College of Nursing -
Q6: During the first Leopold maneuver (fundal grip), the nurse palpates a soft, irregular, non-ballotable mass
occupying the fundus of the uterus. Which interpretation of this finding is correct?
A. The fetus is in a transverse lie
B. The fetal head is in the fundus
C. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation [CORRECT]
D. The fetus is in a face presentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A soft, irregular mass in the fundus represents the fetal buttocks, meaning the head is over the pelvic
inlet and the fetus is cephalic; the head feels hard, round, and ballotable. A transverse lie would present neither pole
at the fundus or inlet, and face presentation can only be determined by vaginally palpating facial landmarks.
Q7: During a pelvic examination at 8 weeks' gestation, the nurse notes a bluish-purple discoloration of the
vaginal mucosa and cervix. Which term should the nurse use to document this finding?
A. Hegar sign
B. Chadwick sign [CORRECT]
C. Goodell sign
D. Ballottement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chadwick sign is the bluish-violet coloration of the vaginal and cervical mucosa produced by increased
vascularity and venous congestion of early pregnancy. Goodell sign describes cervical softening, Hegar sign
describes softening of the lower uterine segment or isthmus, and ballottement is the rebound of a floating fetus
when tapped during examination.
Q8: The triage nurse returns to the desk and finds voicemail messages from four prenatal clients. Which client
should the nurse telephone back FIRST?
A. A client at 14 weeks with nausea relieved by eating crackers before rising
B. A client at 33 weeks with irregular tightening that stops when she walks
C. A client at 20 weeks with brief groin pain when changing position
D. A client at 27 weeks with a severe headache, blurred vision, and facial swelling [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and facial or hand edema at 27 weeks suggest preeclampsia with
severe features and an imminent risk of seizures, requiring same-day evaluation of blood pressure, proteinuria, and
laboratory work. Nausea, Braxton Hicks tightening, and round ligament pain are common, expected discomforts of
pregnancy and are lower priority.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a client at 28 weeks' gestation about danger signs that require notification of the
provider. Which client statement indicates correct understanding of the teaching?
A. I can wait until my next appointment if I develop a bad headache
B. A small amount of vaginal bleeding is normal in late pregnancy
C. I should call the clinic right away if my baby's movements decrease [CORRECT]
D. Leaking fluid from my vagina is normal after 30 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement can signal fetal hypoxia or compromise and must be reported immediately,
typically prompting evaluation for at least 10 movements in 2 hours. Persistent severe headache, any vaginal
bleeding, and leakage of fluid are also danger signs, so the statements dismissing them show misunderstanding.
Maternal Health Course Assessment Preparation 3
VERIFIED ANSWERS
NSG 3500 Exam 2
Maternal Health
A comprehensive 100-question practice examination
spanning antepartum assessment, maternal-fetal
physiology, prenatal screening and genetics, high-risk
pregnancy conditions, intrapartum fetal monitoring,
infections and teratogens, and psychosocial and
ethical considerations, with verified answers and
detailed rationales.
Galen College of Nursing · Questions and
Answers (Verified Answers)
ED I T I ON · 8 S ECT I ONS · 100 QUES T I ONS
,NSG 3500 Exam 2 | Maternal Health Galen College of Nursing -
NSG 3500 Exam 2 | Maternal Health (2026/2027) | Galen College
of Nursing
Maternal Health Course Assessment | Questions and Answers (Verified Answers) | Academic
Cycle | 100 Questions in 8 Sections
Verification and Usage Notes: Every question in this examination is presented with one clearly marked verified answer
and a rationale that explains the maternal-newborn clinical reasoning behind the keyed response and the failure of each
distractor, aligned with the Galen College of Nursing NSG 3500 maternal health course objectives and current ACOG and
AWHONN practice standards for the cycle. The cognitive mix follows the course blueprint: approximately
30 percent recall of maternal health concepts, 50 percent application to clinical scenarios and medication decision-making,
and 20 percent analysis of competing conditions, fetal monitoring tracings, and prioritization judgments. NCLEX-style
formats appear throughout, including which finding requires immediate follow-up, which client the nurse should assess
first, medication administration scenarios for magnesium sulfate, insulin, antihypertensives, and Rho(D) immune globulin,
laboratory value interpretation, and fetal monitoring strip description. Commonly confused concept pairs such as
preeclampsia versus gestational hypertension, placenta previa versus abruptio placentae, screening versus diagnostic tests,
early versus late versus variable decelerations, and magnesium toxicity versus therapeutic effect appear throughout.
Answer choices are distributed evenly across positions A through D so that candidates cannot pattern-match, and each
rationale may be used as a self-study explanation when an item is missed.
SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 15
Antepartum Care and Maternal Assessment (Prenatal Care, GTPAL, Fundal Height, and Fetal Assessment)
Q1: A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client who is currently pregnant at 30 weeks' gestation. Her
obstetric history includes delivery of twins at 36 weeks' gestation (both twins are living), one singleton
delivered at 39 weeks' gestation (living), and one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks' gestation. Which
GTPAL classification should the nurse document for this client?
A. 4-2-1-0-3
B. 3-1-1-1-3
C. 4-1-1-1-3 [CORRECT]
D. 4-1-1-1-2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gravida is 4 (the current pregnancy plus three prior pregnancies). Term is 1 (only the 39-week birth),
preterm is 1 (the twin birth at 36 weeks counts as ONE delivery regardless of the number of infants), abortion is 1,
and living children number 3 (both twins plus the singleton). Distractors that show 4-2-1-0-3 incorrectly count twins
as two term births and drop the abortion; 3-1-1-1-3 omits the current pregnancy from the gravida count.
Maternal Health Course Assessment Preparation 1
,NSG 3500 Exam 2 | Maternal Health Galen College of Nursing -
Q2: A client with regular 28-day menstrual cycles presents for her first prenatal visit. Her last menstrual
period began on March 15, 2026. Using Naegele's rule, which expected date of birth (EDB) should the
nurse calculate?
A. December 22, 2026 [CORRECT]
B. December 8, 2026
C. January 1, 2027
D. November 22, 2026
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's rule adds 7 days and subtracts 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period: March
15 plus 7 days equals March 22, and subtracting 3 months gives December 22, 2026. Choosing January 1, 2027
results from adding 7 days without subtracting months, and November 22 results from subtracting 4 months.
Q3: A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the classification of signs of pregnancy. Which
assessment finding is a POSITIVE (diagnostic) sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Chadwick sign
C. A positive urine pregnancy test
D. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Only positive signs can be attributed solely to the fetus: ultrasound visualization of the fetus, fetal heart
tones auscultated by the examiner, and fetal movement palpated by the examiner. Amenorrhea and Chadwick sign
are presumptive signs, and a positive urine or serum test is a probable sign because other conditions can elevate
hCG.
Q4: A client at 20 weeks' gestation asks the nurse where the top of her uterus should be felt. Which response
by the nurse is accurate?
A. Just above the symphysis pubis
B. At the level of the umbilicus [CORRECT]
C. Halfway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
D. Just below the xiphoid process
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 20 weeks the fundus is palpable at the umbilicus; it reaches just above the symphysis pubis around 12
to 16 weeks and the xiphoid process near 36 weeks. After 20 weeks, fundal height in centimeters approximates
gestational age in weeks, so a measurement much smaller than 20 cm warrants evaluation for inaccurate dating or
fetal growth restriction.
Q5: A client at 18 weeks' gestation asks the nurse how often she will return for prenatal visits if her pregnancy
remains low risk. Which schedule should the nurse describe?
A. Every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, then weekly [CORRECT]
B. Every 2 weeks until 28 weeks, then weekly until birth
C. Monthly until 32 weeks, then every 2 weeks until birth
D. Every 3 weeks throughout the entire pregnancy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The traditional low-risk schedule is visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks, every 2 weeks from 28 to 36
weeks, and weekly from 36 weeks until birth, with visits intensified as risks of hypertensive disorders, growth
restriction, and preterm labor rise. Schedules that skip the biweekly 28-to-36-week window leave preeclampsia and
fetal well-being surveillance gaps.
Maternal Health Course Assessment Preparation 2
, NSG 3500 Exam 2 | Maternal Health Galen College of Nursing -
Q6: During the first Leopold maneuver (fundal grip), the nurse palpates a soft, irregular, non-ballotable mass
occupying the fundus of the uterus. Which interpretation of this finding is correct?
A. The fetus is in a transverse lie
B. The fetal head is in the fundus
C. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation [CORRECT]
D. The fetus is in a face presentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A soft, irregular mass in the fundus represents the fetal buttocks, meaning the head is over the pelvic
inlet and the fetus is cephalic; the head feels hard, round, and ballotable. A transverse lie would present neither pole
at the fundus or inlet, and face presentation can only be determined by vaginally palpating facial landmarks.
Q7: During a pelvic examination at 8 weeks' gestation, the nurse notes a bluish-purple discoloration of the
vaginal mucosa and cervix. Which term should the nurse use to document this finding?
A. Hegar sign
B. Chadwick sign [CORRECT]
C. Goodell sign
D. Ballottement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chadwick sign is the bluish-violet coloration of the vaginal and cervical mucosa produced by increased
vascularity and venous congestion of early pregnancy. Goodell sign describes cervical softening, Hegar sign
describes softening of the lower uterine segment or isthmus, and ballottement is the rebound of a floating fetus
when tapped during examination.
Q8: The triage nurse returns to the desk and finds voicemail messages from four prenatal clients. Which client
should the nurse telephone back FIRST?
A. A client at 14 weeks with nausea relieved by eating crackers before rising
B. A client at 33 weeks with irregular tightening that stops when she walks
C. A client at 20 weeks with brief groin pain when changing position
D. A client at 27 weeks with a severe headache, blurred vision, and facial swelling [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and facial or hand edema at 27 weeks suggest preeclampsia with
severe features and an imminent risk of seizures, requiring same-day evaluation of blood pressure, proteinuria, and
laboratory work. Nausea, Braxton Hicks tightening, and round ligament pain are common, expected discomforts of
pregnancy and are lower priority.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a client at 28 weeks' gestation about danger signs that require notification of the
provider. Which client statement indicates correct understanding of the teaching?
A. I can wait until my next appointment if I develop a bad headache
B. A small amount of vaginal bleeding is normal in late pregnancy
C. I should call the clinic right away if my baby's movements decrease [CORRECT]
D. Leaking fluid from my vagina is normal after 30 weeks
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement can signal fetal hypoxia or compromise and must be reported immediately,
typically prompting evaluation for at least 10 movements in 2 hours. Persistent severe headache, any vaginal
bleeding, and leakage of fluid are also danger signs, so the statements dismissing them show misunderstanding.
Maternal Health Course Assessment Preparation 3
