URS 5334 Advanced Pharm: Final Exam |
Questions and Answers | 2026 Update | 100%
Correct – UTA.
Course
NURS 5334
1. Which statement best defines pharmacokinetics?
A. The effects of drugs on receptors
B. What the body does to a drug
C. What a drug does to the body
D. The relationship between adverse effects and toxicity
Correct Answer: B. What the body does to a drug
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
(ADME). Pharmacodynamics describes the effects of a drug on the body.
2. Which process describes hepatic conversion of a drug into metabolites?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
Correct Answer: C. Metabolism
Rationale: Drug metabolism occurs primarily in the liver and frequently involves CYP450
enzymes. Metabolism can activate, inactivate, or otherwise modify drugs.
3. A patient takes a medication that strongly inhibits CYP3A4. What can occur with a
medication primarily metabolized by CYP3A4?
A. Decreased serum drug concentration
B. Increased serum drug concentration
C. Complete prevention of absorption
D. Immediate renal elimination
Correct Answer: B. Increased serum drug concentration
Rationale: CYP inhibition can decrease metabolism of a substrate drug, potentially increasing its
serum concentration and risk of adverse effects.
4. What is pharmacodynamics?
,A. Movement of drugs through the gastrointestinal tract
B. Drug absorption into systemic circulation
C. Effects of a drug on the body
D. Renal elimination of medication
Correct Answer: C. Effects of a drug on the body
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics includes receptor interactions, dose-response relationships,
therapeutic effects, and adverse effects.
5. Which description best characterizes a receptor antagonist?
A. It always produces maximal receptor stimulation.
B. It binds to a receptor and blocks receptor activation without producing the usual activating
response.
C. It permanently increases receptor sensitivity.
D. It accelerates renal drug clearance.
Correct Answer: B. It binds to a receptor and blocks receptor activation without producing
the usual activating response.
Rationale: An antagonist has receptor affinity but lacks the intrinsic activity required to activate
the receptor in the manner of an agonist.
6. Which drug is a partial opioid agonist commonly used in medication treatment for opioid
use disorder?
A. Naloxone
B. Naltrexone
C. Buprenorphine
D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C. Buprenorphine
Rationale: Buprenorphine is a partial μ-opioid receptor agonist. It can reduce opioid withdrawal
and cravings while producing less opioid effect than a full agonist at appropriate doses.
7. What is the primary pharmacologic action of naltrexone?
A. Partial opioid receptor stimulation
B. Opioid receptor antagonism
C. Increased dopamine release
D. Benzodiazepine receptor stimulation
Correct Answer: B. Opioid receptor antagonism
,Rationale: Naltrexone blocks opioid receptors and can reduce the euphoric and reinforcing
effects of opioids. Patients must be appropriately opioid-free before initiation to avoid
precipitating withdrawal.
8. Which combination creates a particularly important risk for respiratory depression?
A. Acetaminophen and topical hydrocortisone
B. Opioids and benzodiazepines
C. Penicillin and acetaminophen
D. Metformin and calcium carbonate
Correct Answer: B. Opioids and benzodiazepines
Rationale: Both drug classes can depress the central nervous system. Combined use can
substantially increase sedation and respiratory-depression risk.
9. Which adverse effect is particularly important to monitor in a patient taking an ACE
inhibitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Severe neutropenia in every patient
D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors decrease aldosterone activity, which can reduce potassium excretion.
Renal function and potassium should be monitored when clinically appropriate.
10. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops facial and tongue swelling. What is the
priority concern?
A. Mild medication intolerance
B. Angioedema
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Iron deficiency
Correct Answer: B. Angioedema
Rationale: ACE inhibitor-associated angioedema can threaten the airway. The medication should
be stopped and the patient evaluated urgently when significant swelling occurs.
11. A patient takes lisinopril and spironolactone. Which laboratory value deserves
particular monitoring?
A. Potassium
B. Chloride
, C. Hemoglobin A1c only
D. Platelet count only
Correct Answer: A. Potassium
Rationale: Both drugs can increase potassium levels. The combination increases the risk of
clinically significant hyperkalemia, especially in patients with impaired renal function.
12. What is the primary therapeutic effect of thiazide diuretics?
A. Increase sodium and water excretion
B. Increase insulin secretion
C. Block opioid receptors
D. Suppress thyroid hormone synthesis
Correct Answer: A. Increase sodium and water excretion
Rationale: Thiazides inhibit sodium-chloride transport in the distal convoluted tubule,
promoting natriuresis and diuresis and lowering blood pressure.
13. Which electrolyte abnormality can occur with thiazide therapy?
A. Hypernatremia in every patient
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia as the defining effect
D. Severe hypercalciuria
Correct Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Increased distal sodium delivery can enhance potassium secretion. Serum electrolytes
should be monitored according to the patient's clinical circumstances.
14. Which medication class directly inhibits HMG-CoA reductase?
A. Statins
B. Fibrates
C. Bile acid sequestrants
D. PCSK9 inhibitors
Correct Answer: A. Statins
Rationale: Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, reducing hepatic cholesterol synthesis and
increasing hepatic LDL receptor activity.
15. A patient taking a statin reports unexplained muscle pain and weakness. What is the
appropriate concern?
Questions and Answers | 2026 Update | 100%
Correct – UTA.
Course
NURS 5334
1. Which statement best defines pharmacokinetics?
A. The effects of drugs on receptors
B. What the body does to a drug
C. What a drug does to the body
D. The relationship between adverse effects and toxicity
Correct Answer: B. What the body does to a drug
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
(ADME). Pharmacodynamics describes the effects of a drug on the body.
2. Which process describes hepatic conversion of a drug into metabolites?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
Correct Answer: C. Metabolism
Rationale: Drug metabolism occurs primarily in the liver and frequently involves CYP450
enzymes. Metabolism can activate, inactivate, or otherwise modify drugs.
3. A patient takes a medication that strongly inhibits CYP3A4. What can occur with a
medication primarily metabolized by CYP3A4?
A. Decreased serum drug concentration
B. Increased serum drug concentration
C. Complete prevention of absorption
D. Immediate renal elimination
Correct Answer: B. Increased serum drug concentration
Rationale: CYP inhibition can decrease metabolism of a substrate drug, potentially increasing its
serum concentration and risk of adverse effects.
4. What is pharmacodynamics?
,A. Movement of drugs through the gastrointestinal tract
B. Drug absorption into systemic circulation
C. Effects of a drug on the body
D. Renal elimination of medication
Correct Answer: C. Effects of a drug on the body
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics includes receptor interactions, dose-response relationships,
therapeutic effects, and adverse effects.
5. Which description best characterizes a receptor antagonist?
A. It always produces maximal receptor stimulation.
B. It binds to a receptor and blocks receptor activation without producing the usual activating
response.
C. It permanently increases receptor sensitivity.
D. It accelerates renal drug clearance.
Correct Answer: B. It binds to a receptor and blocks receptor activation without producing
the usual activating response.
Rationale: An antagonist has receptor affinity but lacks the intrinsic activity required to activate
the receptor in the manner of an agonist.
6. Which drug is a partial opioid agonist commonly used in medication treatment for opioid
use disorder?
A. Naloxone
B. Naltrexone
C. Buprenorphine
D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C. Buprenorphine
Rationale: Buprenorphine is a partial μ-opioid receptor agonist. It can reduce opioid withdrawal
and cravings while producing less opioid effect than a full agonist at appropriate doses.
7. What is the primary pharmacologic action of naltrexone?
A. Partial opioid receptor stimulation
B. Opioid receptor antagonism
C. Increased dopamine release
D. Benzodiazepine receptor stimulation
Correct Answer: B. Opioid receptor antagonism
,Rationale: Naltrexone blocks opioid receptors and can reduce the euphoric and reinforcing
effects of opioids. Patients must be appropriately opioid-free before initiation to avoid
precipitating withdrawal.
8. Which combination creates a particularly important risk for respiratory depression?
A. Acetaminophen and topical hydrocortisone
B. Opioids and benzodiazepines
C. Penicillin and acetaminophen
D. Metformin and calcium carbonate
Correct Answer: B. Opioids and benzodiazepines
Rationale: Both drug classes can depress the central nervous system. Combined use can
substantially increase sedation and respiratory-depression risk.
9. Which adverse effect is particularly important to monitor in a patient taking an ACE
inhibitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Severe neutropenia in every patient
D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors decrease aldosterone activity, which can reduce potassium excretion.
Renal function and potassium should be monitored when clinically appropriate.
10. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor develops facial and tongue swelling. What is the
priority concern?
A. Mild medication intolerance
B. Angioedema
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Iron deficiency
Correct Answer: B. Angioedema
Rationale: ACE inhibitor-associated angioedema can threaten the airway. The medication should
be stopped and the patient evaluated urgently when significant swelling occurs.
11. A patient takes lisinopril and spironolactone. Which laboratory value deserves
particular monitoring?
A. Potassium
B. Chloride
, C. Hemoglobin A1c only
D. Platelet count only
Correct Answer: A. Potassium
Rationale: Both drugs can increase potassium levels. The combination increases the risk of
clinically significant hyperkalemia, especially in patients with impaired renal function.
12. What is the primary therapeutic effect of thiazide diuretics?
A. Increase sodium and water excretion
B. Increase insulin secretion
C. Block opioid receptors
D. Suppress thyroid hormone synthesis
Correct Answer: A. Increase sodium and water excretion
Rationale: Thiazides inhibit sodium-chloride transport in the distal convoluted tubule,
promoting natriuresis and diuresis and lowering blood pressure.
13. Which electrolyte abnormality can occur with thiazide therapy?
A. Hypernatremia in every patient
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia as the defining effect
D. Severe hypercalciuria
Correct Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Increased distal sodium delivery can enhance potassium secretion. Serum electrolytes
should be monitored according to the patient's clinical circumstances.
14. Which medication class directly inhibits HMG-CoA reductase?
A. Statins
B. Fibrates
C. Bile acid sequestrants
D. PCSK9 inhibitors
Correct Answer: A. Statins
Rationale: Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, reducing hepatic cholesterol synthesis and
increasing hepatic LDL receptor activity.
15. A patient taking a statin reports unexplained muscle pain and weakness. What is the
appropriate concern?
