HIM 1103 Medical Terminology Integration Exam
Practice Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download
Pdf - Complete 100 Verified Q&A with Answers &
Rationales for Exam Prep
Q1
A patient's discharge summary notes 'hepatosplenomegaly with associated pancytopenia.' Which of the
following best describes the combined pathophysiologic state?
A. Enlargement of liver and spleen with reduction in all blood cell lines.
B. Inflammation of liver and spleen with increased white blood cell count.
C. Enlargement of liver and spleen with decreased platelet count only.
D. Inflammation of liver and spleen with decreased red blood cell count only.
Answer: A
Rationale: Hepatosplenomegaly refers to enlargement of both liver and spleen; pancytopenia denotes
deficiency of all three blood cell types (RBCs, WBCs, platelets). Option B is incorrect because
pancytopenia does not cause increased WBCs. Options C and D are incomplete, as pancytopenia affects
all cell lines, not just platelets or RBCs.
Q2
Which of the following best explains why the term 'arteriosclerosis' is distinct from 'atherosclerosis' in
clinical documentation?
A. Arteriosclerosis is a general term for arterial hardening, while atherosclerosis specifically involves lipid
plaque buildup.
B. Atherosclerosis refers to hardening of arteries due to calcium deposits, while arteriosclerosis is caused
by cholesterol.
C. Arteriosclerosis is an inflammatory condition, whereas atherosclerosis is a degenerative condition.
D. Atherosclerosis affects only small arteries, while arteriosclerosis affects large arteries.
Answer: A
Rationale: Arteriosclerosis is the broader term for arterial wall thickening and loss of elasticity;
atherosclerosis is a specific form characterized by lipid-rich plaques. Option B reverses the definitions.
Option C is incorrect because both can have inflammatory components. Option D is false; both can affect
various artery sizes.
,Q3
A patient is prescribed a medication that is a 'selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.' Which of the following
is the most accurate interpretation of this term?
A. It blocks the reabsorption of serotonin, increasing its availability in the synaptic cleft.
B. It inhibits the release of serotonin from presynaptic neurons.
C. It selectively destroys serotonin receptors on postsynaptic neurons.
D. It enhances the breakdown of serotonin by monoamine oxidase.
Answer: A
Rationale: SSRIs work by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin into presynaptic neurons, thereby
increasing serotonin levels in the synapse. Option B describes release inhibitors. Option C describes
receptor antagonists. Option D describes MAOIs, not SSRIs.
Q4
Which of the following prefixes, when added to the root '-plasia,' would indicate 'new growth'?
A. A-
B. Dys-
C. Neo-
D. Hyper-
Answer: C
Rationale: The prefix 'neo-' means new, so 'neoplasia' refers to new, abnormal tissue growth. 'A-' means
without (aplasia), 'dys-' means abnormal (dysplasia), and 'hyper-' means excessive (hyperplasia), none of
which specifically denote new growth.
Q5
A patient's lab report indicates 'hyperkalemia.' Which of the following is the most likely clinical
manifestation?
A. Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias
B. Tetany and seizures
C. Polyuria and polydipsia
D. Bradycardia and hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium) can cause muscle weakness and life-threatening cardiac
arrhythmias. Option B is associated with hypocalcemia. Option C is typical of hyperglycemia. Option D is
not specific to hyperkalemia; bradycardia can occur but is not the primary manifestation.
,Q6
In the term 'pericarditis,' the root 'cardi' refers to the heart. What does the prefix 'peri-' and suffix '-itis'
indicate?
A. Around; inflammation
B. Within; infection
C. Outside; pain
D. Between; swelling
Answer: A
Rationale: 'Peri-' means around, and '-itis' means inflammation, so pericarditis is inflammation of the sac
around the heart. Option B 'within' would be 'endo-'. Option C 'outside' could be 'extra-', but '-itis' is not
pain. Option D 'between' is 'inter-'.
Q7
Which of the following best describes the difference between 'dysphagia' and 'dysphasia'?
A. Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing; dysphasia is difficulty speaking.
B. Dysphagia is difficulty speaking; dysphasia is difficulty swallowing.
C. Dysphagia is painful swallowing; dysphasia is absence of speech.
D. Dysphagia is inability to swallow; dysphasia is slurred speech.
Answer: A
Rationale: Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing (phagia = swallow). Dysphasia refers to impairment of
speech and language (phasia = speech). Option B reverses them. Option C is incorrect because
dysphagia is not necessarily painful, and dysphasia is not absence of speech (that would be aphasia).
Option D is incorrect because dysphagia is not total inability (that would be aphagia), and dysphasia is not
just slurred speech (that could be dysarthria).
Q8
A patient's operative report states 'laparoscopic cholecystectomy.' Which of the following anatomical
structures is removed?
A. Gallbladder
B. Appendix
C. Spleen
D. Kidney
Answer: A
Rationale: Cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder (chole = bile, cyst = bladder,
ectomy = excision). Laparoscopic indicates the minimally invasive approach. The other options correspond
to appendectomy, splenectomy, and nephrectomy, respectively.
, Q9
Which of the following is the correct breakdown of the term 'electroencephalogram'?
A. Electro- (electricity) + encephalo- (brain) + -gram (record)
B. Electro- (electricity) + encephalo- (head) + -gram (image)
C. Electro- (nerve) + encephalo- (brain) + -gram (measurement)
D. Electro- (electricity) + encephalo- (spinal cord) + -gram (recording)
Answer: A
Rationale: Electroencephalogram is a record of the brain's electrical activity: electro- (electricity),
encephalo- (brain), -gram (record). Option B incorrectly uses 'head' for encephalo-. Option C incorrectly
defines electro- as nerve. Option D incorrectly uses 'spinal cord' for encephalo-.
Q10
Which of the following best defines the term 'idiopathic' in a clinical context?
A. Disease of unknown cause
B. Disease caused by a known pathogen
C. Disease that is inherited
D. Disease that is iatrogenic
Answer: A
Rationale: Idiopathic means arising spontaneously or from an unknown cause. Option B would be
infectious. Option C would be genetic or hereditary. Option D would be iatrogenic (caused by medical
treatment).
Q11
A provider's order reads: 'Administer 0.5 mg of digoxin IV push now.' The pharmacy supplies a vial labeled
0.25 mg/mL. Which volume must the clinician draw to execute the order exactly as written?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1 mL
C. 2 mL
D. 2.5 mL
Answer: C
Rationale: Dose ÷ concentration = volume: 0.5 mg ÷ 0.25 mg/mL = 2 mL. Option A mistakenly treats mg
and mL as equivalent, B halves the required dose, and D misapplies the concentration ratio. Accurate unit
conversion is essential because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index.
Practice Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales Q&A Instant Download
Pdf - Complete 100 Verified Q&A with Answers &
Rationales for Exam Prep
Q1
A patient's discharge summary notes 'hepatosplenomegaly with associated pancytopenia.' Which of the
following best describes the combined pathophysiologic state?
A. Enlargement of liver and spleen with reduction in all blood cell lines.
B. Inflammation of liver and spleen with increased white blood cell count.
C. Enlargement of liver and spleen with decreased platelet count only.
D. Inflammation of liver and spleen with decreased red blood cell count only.
Answer: A
Rationale: Hepatosplenomegaly refers to enlargement of both liver and spleen; pancytopenia denotes
deficiency of all three blood cell types (RBCs, WBCs, platelets). Option B is incorrect because
pancytopenia does not cause increased WBCs. Options C and D are incomplete, as pancytopenia affects
all cell lines, not just platelets or RBCs.
Q2
Which of the following best explains why the term 'arteriosclerosis' is distinct from 'atherosclerosis' in
clinical documentation?
A. Arteriosclerosis is a general term for arterial hardening, while atherosclerosis specifically involves lipid
plaque buildup.
B. Atherosclerosis refers to hardening of arteries due to calcium deposits, while arteriosclerosis is caused
by cholesterol.
C. Arteriosclerosis is an inflammatory condition, whereas atherosclerosis is a degenerative condition.
D. Atherosclerosis affects only small arteries, while arteriosclerosis affects large arteries.
Answer: A
Rationale: Arteriosclerosis is the broader term for arterial wall thickening and loss of elasticity;
atherosclerosis is a specific form characterized by lipid-rich plaques. Option B reverses the definitions.
Option C is incorrect because both can have inflammatory components. Option D is false; both can affect
various artery sizes.
,Q3
A patient is prescribed a medication that is a 'selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.' Which of the following
is the most accurate interpretation of this term?
A. It blocks the reabsorption of serotonin, increasing its availability in the synaptic cleft.
B. It inhibits the release of serotonin from presynaptic neurons.
C. It selectively destroys serotonin receptors on postsynaptic neurons.
D. It enhances the breakdown of serotonin by monoamine oxidase.
Answer: A
Rationale: SSRIs work by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin into presynaptic neurons, thereby
increasing serotonin levels in the synapse. Option B describes release inhibitors. Option C describes
receptor antagonists. Option D describes MAOIs, not SSRIs.
Q4
Which of the following prefixes, when added to the root '-plasia,' would indicate 'new growth'?
A. A-
B. Dys-
C. Neo-
D. Hyper-
Answer: C
Rationale: The prefix 'neo-' means new, so 'neoplasia' refers to new, abnormal tissue growth. 'A-' means
without (aplasia), 'dys-' means abnormal (dysplasia), and 'hyper-' means excessive (hyperplasia), none of
which specifically denote new growth.
Q5
A patient's lab report indicates 'hyperkalemia.' Which of the following is the most likely clinical
manifestation?
A. Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias
B. Tetany and seizures
C. Polyuria and polydipsia
D. Bradycardia and hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium) can cause muscle weakness and life-threatening cardiac
arrhythmias. Option B is associated with hypocalcemia. Option C is typical of hyperglycemia. Option D is
not specific to hyperkalemia; bradycardia can occur but is not the primary manifestation.
,Q6
In the term 'pericarditis,' the root 'cardi' refers to the heart. What does the prefix 'peri-' and suffix '-itis'
indicate?
A. Around; inflammation
B. Within; infection
C. Outside; pain
D. Between; swelling
Answer: A
Rationale: 'Peri-' means around, and '-itis' means inflammation, so pericarditis is inflammation of the sac
around the heart. Option B 'within' would be 'endo-'. Option C 'outside' could be 'extra-', but '-itis' is not
pain. Option D 'between' is 'inter-'.
Q7
Which of the following best describes the difference between 'dysphagia' and 'dysphasia'?
A. Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing; dysphasia is difficulty speaking.
B. Dysphagia is difficulty speaking; dysphasia is difficulty swallowing.
C. Dysphagia is painful swallowing; dysphasia is absence of speech.
D. Dysphagia is inability to swallow; dysphasia is slurred speech.
Answer: A
Rationale: Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing (phagia = swallow). Dysphasia refers to impairment of
speech and language (phasia = speech). Option B reverses them. Option C is incorrect because
dysphagia is not necessarily painful, and dysphasia is not absence of speech (that would be aphasia).
Option D is incorrect because dysphagia is not total inability (that would be aphagia), and dysphasia is not
just slurred speech (that could be dysarthria).
Q8
A patient's operative report states 'laparoscopic cholecystectomy.' Which of the following anatomical
structures is removed?
A. Gallbladder
B. Appendix
C. Spleen
D. Kidney
Answer: A
Rationale: Cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder (chole = bile, cyst = bladder,
ectomy = excision). Laparoscopic indicates the minimally invasive approach. The other options correspond
to appendectomy, splenectomy, and nephrectomy, respectively.
, Q9
Which of the following is the correct breakdown of the term 'electroencephalogram'?
A. Electro- (electricity) + encephalo- (brain) + -gram (record)
B. Electro- (electricity) + encephalo- (head) + -gram (image)
C. Electro- (nerve) + encephalo- (brain) + -gram (measurement)
D. Electro- (electricity) + encephalo- (spinal cord) + -gram (recording)
Answer: A
Rationale: Electroencephalogram is a record of the brain's electrical activity: electro- (electricity),
encephalo- (brain), -gram (record). Option B incorrectly uses 'head' for encephalo-. Option C incorrectly
defines electro- as nerve. Option D incorrectly uses 'spinal cord' for encephalo-.
Q10
Which of the following best defines the term 'idiopathic' in a clinical context?
A. Disease of unknown cause
B. Disease caused by a known pathogen
C. Disease that is inherited
D. Disease that is iatrogenic
Answer: A
Rationale: Idiopathic means arising spontaneously or from an unknown cause. Option B would be
infectious. Option C would be genetic or hereditary. Option D would be iatrogenic (caused by medical
treatment).
Q11
A provider's order reads: 'Administer 0.5 mg of digoxin IV push now.' The pharmacy supplies a vial labeled
0.25 mg/mL. Which volume must the clinician draw to execute the order exactly as written?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1 mL
C. 2 mL
D. 2.5 mL
Answer: C
Rationale: Dose ÷ concentration = volume: 0.5 mg ÷ 0.25 mg/mL = 2 mL. Option A mistakenly treats mg
and mL as equivalent, B halves the required dose, and D misapplies the concentration ratio. Accurate unit
conversion is essential because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index.
