,NUS 215 Exam 2 Healthcare Foundations Questions And Answers
2026/2027 Jersey College
Q1. A patient's oral temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F). Which finding
should be assessed as a possible physiologic response to the fever?
A) Decreased metabolic rate
B) Persistent bradycardia
C) Increased heart rate
D) Reduced oxygen demand
Correct Answer: C) Increased heart rate
Rationale: Fever increases metabolic activity and oxygen demand and is
commonly accompanied by tachycardia.
Q2. Which situation can produce a falsely elevated blood-pressure
measurement?
A) Supporting the arm at heart level
B) Allowing the patient to rest before measurement
C) Selecting a correctly sized cuff
D) Using a cuff that is too small for the patient's arm
Correct Answer: D) Using a cuff that is too small for the patient's arm
Rationale: A cuff that is too small requires greater pressure to compress the
artery and can produce an inaccurately high reading.
Q3. A patient becomes dizzy when standing. Blood pressure changes
from 126/74 mm Hg lying down to 98/60 mm Hg standing. Which
interpretation is most appropriate?
A) The findings are consistent with orthostatic hypotension
B) The patient is experiencing isolated hypertension
C) The change demonstrates improved perfusion
D) The blood pressure response is expected in every adult
Correct Answer: A) The findings are consistent with orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: A significant fall in blood pressure with position change,
particularly when accompanied by dizziness, is consistent with orthostatic
hypotension.
Q4. Which pulse finding requires further assessment?
,A) Regular pulse of 72/min in a resting adult
B) New irregular rhythm with a pulse of 124/min
C) Regular pulse of 80/min after resting
D) Mild increase in pulse following brief activity
Correct Answer: B) New irregular rhythm with a pulse of 124/min
Rationale: New tachycardia accompanied by an irregular rhythm may
indicate a dysrhythmia or physiologic instability.
Q5. Which action is appropriate when counting respirations?
A) Tell the patient to consciously control breathing
B) Count only deep breaths
C) Assess respirations immediately after strenuous exercise only
D) Observe rate, rhythm, depth, and effort while the patient is unaware when
possible
Correct Answer: D) Observe rate, rhythm, depth, and effort while the patient
is unaware when possible
Rationale: Awareness that respirations are being counted can alter
breathing patterns, so unobtrusive assessment improves accuracy.
Q6. A pulse oximeter reads 84%, but the patient appears
comfortable and has cold fingers with dark nail polish. What is the
best initial action?
A) Diagnose severe hypoxemia immediately
B) Ignore the reading
C) Assess the patient and verify the reading using an appropriate site and
reliable signal
D) Document 84% as accurate without reassessment
Correct Answer: C) Assess the patient and verify the reading using an
appropriate site and reliable signal
Rationale: Poor peripheral perfusion and external factors can interfere with
pulse-oximetry accuracy, so abnormal readings should be correlated with
clinical assessment.
Q7. Which patient has the greatest immediate fall risk?
A) A fully oriented patient independently walking with a steady gait
B) A patient requesting assistance to sit in a chair
, C) A patient using nonslip footwear
D) A confused patient who repeatedly attempts to stand without assistance
Correct Answer: D) A confused patient who repeatedly attempts to stand
without assistance
Rationale: Confusion combined with unsafe attempts at independent
mobility creates a high immediate risk for falls.
Q8. Which intervention is most appropriate for a hospitalized
patient at increased fall risk?
A) Keep the bed low, maintain needed items within reach, and provide
assistance with mobility
B) Raise all four side rails continuously as a routine intervention
C) Keep the patient's personal items across the room
D) Encourage the patient to walk independently despite instability
Correct Answer: A) Keep the bed low, maintain needed items within reach,
and provide assistance with mobility
Rationale: Environmental safety and appropriate mobility assistance reduce
preventable falls without unnecessarily restricting the patient.
Q9. A fire starts in a patient's room. According to the RACE
approach, what is the first priority?
A) Activate the alarm
B) Contain the fire
C) Extinguish the fire
D) Rescue individuals in immediate danger
Correct Answer: D) Rescue individuals in immediate danger
Rationale: RACE begins with rescuing anyone directly threatened before
activating the alarm, containing the fire, and extinguishing or evacuating as
appropriate.
Q10. Which action is appropriate during disaster triage when
healthcare resources are severely limited?
A) Treat patients strictly in arrival order
B) Prioritize resources according to urgency and likelihood of benefit
C) Provide all available resources to the first critically ill patient
D) Delay triage until every patient receives a complete examination
2026/2027 Jersey College
Q1. A patient's oral temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F). Which finding
should be assessed as a possible physiologic response to the fever?
A) Decreased metabolic rate
B) Persistent bradycardia
C) Increased heart rate
D) Reduced oxygen demand
Correct Answer: C) Increased heart rate
Rationale: Fever increases metabolic activity and oxygen demand and is
commonly accompanied by tachycardia.
Q2. Which situation can produce a falsely elevated blood-pressure
measurement?
A) Supporting the arm at heart level
B) Allowing the patient to rest before measurement
C) Selecting a correctly sized cuff
D) Using a cuff that is too small for the patient's arm
Correct Answer: D) Using a cuff that is too small for the patient's arm
Rationale: A cuff that is too small requires greater pressure to compress the
artery and can produce an inaccurately high reading.
Q3. A patient becomes dizzy when standing. Blood pressure changes
from 126/74 mm Hg lying down to 98/60 mm Hg standing. Which
interpretation is most appropriate?
A) The findings are consistent with orthostatic hypotension
B) The patient is experiencing isolated hypertension
C) The change demonstrates improved perfusion
D) The blood pressure response is expected in every adult
Correct Answer: A) The findings are consistent with orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: A significant fall in blood pressure with position change,
particularly when accompanied by dizziness, is consistent with orthostatic
hypotension.
Q4. Which pulse finding requires further assessment?
,A) Regular pulse of 72/min in a resting adult
B) New irregular rhythm with a pulse of 124/min
C) Regular pulse of 80/min after resting
D) Mild increase in pulse following brief activity
Correct Answer: B) New irregular rhythm with a pulse of 124/min
Rationale: New tachycardia accompanied by an irregular rhythm may
indicate a dysrhythmia or physiologic instability.
Q5. Which action is appropriate when counting respirations?
A) Tell the patient to consciously control breathing
B) Count only deep breaths
C) Assess respirations immediately after strenuous exercise only
D) Observe rate, rhythm, depth, and effort while the patient is unaware when
possible
Correct Answer: D) Observe rate, rhythm, depth, and effort while the patient
is unaware when possible
Rationale: Awareness that respirations are being counted can alter
breathing patterns, so unobtrusive assessment improves accuracy.
Q6. A pulse oximeter reads 84%, but the patient appears
comfortable and has cold fingers with dark nail polish. What is the
best initial action?
A) Diagnose severe hypoxemia immediately
B) Ignore the reading
C) Assess the patient and verify the reading using an appropriate site and
reliable signal
D) Document 84% as accurate without reassessment
Correct Answer: C) Assess the patient and verify the reading using an
appropriate site and reliable signal
Rationale: Poor peripheral perfusion and external factors can interfere with
pulse-oximetry accuracy, so abnormal readings should be correlated with
clinical assessment.
Q7. Which patient has the greatest immediate fall risk?
A) A fully oriented patient independently walking with a steady gait
B) A patient requesting assistance to sit in a chair
, C) A patient using nonslip footwear
D) A confused patient who repeatedly attempts to stand without assistance
Correct Answer: D) A confused patient who repeatedly attempts to stand
without assistance
Rationale: Confusion combined with unsafe attempts at independent
mobility creates a high immediate risk for falls.
Q8. Which intervention is most appropriate for a hospitalized
patient at increased fall risk?
A) Keep the bed low, maintain needed items within reach, and provide
assistance with mobility
B) Raise all four side rails continuously as a routine intervention
C) Keep the patient's personal items across the room
D) Encourage the patient to walk independently despite instability
Correct Answer: A) Keep the bed low, maintain needed items within reach,
and provide assistance with mobility
Rationale: Environmental safety and appropriate mobility assistance reduce
preventable falls without unnecessarily restricting the patient.
Q9. A fire starts in a patient's room. According to the RACE
approach, what is the first priority?
A) Activate the alarm
B) Contain the fire
C) Extinguish the fire
D) Rescue individuals in immediate danger
Correct Answer: D) Rescue individuals in immediate danger
Rationale: RACE begins with rescuing anyone directly threatened before
activating the alarm, containing the fire, and extinguishing or evacuating as
appropriate.
Q10. Which action is appropriate during disaster triage when
healthcare resources are severely limited?
A) Treat patients strictly in arrival order
B) Prioritize resources according to urgency and likelihood of benefit
C) Provide all available resources to the first critically ill patient
D) Delay triage until every patient receives a complete examination
