Virtual ATI Green Light NCLEX Practice Questions
2026/2027 | Virtual-ATI NCLEX-RN Green Light Study
Guide & Practice Test | ATI Virtual-ATI Comprehensive
Predictor Practice Questions, NCLEX-RN Exam Prep,
NGN-Style Questions, Clinical Judgment, Case Studies,
Prioritization, Delegation, Pharmacology, Adult
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Fundamentals, Maternal-
Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Community
Health, Leadership & Management, Safety, Infection
Control, Patient Education, Test-Taking Strategies &
Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion.
The client's IV site is 20-gauge in the right forearm. Which action
should the nurse take first before initiating the transfusion?
A. Prime the blood administration tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
B. Obtain the client's vital signs for a baseline
C. Verify the blood product with a second licensed nurse
D. Assess the client's IV site for patency and signs of infiltration
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Assess the client's IV site for patency and
signs of infiltration
Rationale: Before administering any IV fluid or blood product, the nurse
must first assess the IV site for patency and complications. Initiating a
transfusion through an infiltrated or compromised IV site could cause
serious harm. While obtaining baseline vital signs and verifying the blood
product are essential steps, the initial assessment of the IV site takes
priority as the physical prerequisite for safe administration.
Question 2: A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed
furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most
closely?
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum sodium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
,Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss through
increased urinary excretion. Hypokalemia is a significant risk and can lead
to cardiac dysrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure. While other
electrolytes may be affected, potassium monitoring is the priority for safe
medication management.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day
one following an open cholecystectomy. The client reports pain at
the surgical site. Which assessment finding should the nurse report
immediately?
A. Pain rated 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
C. Heart rate of 92 beats per minute
D. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
Rationale: A low-grade fever on postoperative day one can indicate
atelectasis, but in the context of abdominal surgery, it may also signal an
infectious process. While a temperature of 100.2°F is not immediately life-
threatening, it requires prompt evaluation. Pain and serosanguineous
drainage are expected postoperative findings, and a heart rate of 92 is
within normal limits.
Question 4: A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. The
nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider if
which assessment finding is noted?
A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
C. Serum digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL
D. Weight loss of 1 kg since admission
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
Rationale: Digoxin slows conduction through the AV node and can cause
bradycardia. The nurse should withhold digoxin if the adult apical pulse is
below 60 beats per minute. A digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL is within
therapeutic range (0.5–2.0 ng/mL). Blood pressure and weight loss do not
require withholding the medication.
,Question 5: A nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of
type 2 diabetes about foot care. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding?
A. "I will soak my feet in warm water every night."
B. "I will cut my toenails in a rounded shape."
C. "I will check my feet daily for cuts or blisters."
D. "I will apply lotion between my toes after bathing."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will check my feet daily for cuts or
blisters."
Rationale: Daily foot inspection is essential for clients with diabetes due to
the risk of neuropathy and impaired circulation. Soaking feet can lead to
maceration, toenails should be cut straight across, and lotion should not be
applied between the toes because moisture promotes fungal growth.
Question 6: A client is admitted with a diagnosis of syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing
intervention is the priority?
A. Encourage oral fluid intake
B. Monitor serum sodium levels
C. Administer prescribed diuretics
D. Restrict fluid intake as ordered
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Monitor serum sodium levels
Rationale: SIADH causes excessive water retention and dilutional
hyponatremia. Monitoring serum sodium levels is critical because severe
hyponatremia can lead to seizures and cerebral edema. While fluid
restriction is a key intervention, the nurse's priority is ongoing assessment
of sodium levels to guide safe management.
Question 7: A nurse is preparing to administer intravenous
potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is
essential?
A. Administer the medication as a rapid IV push
B. Verify adequate urine output before administration
C. Administer the medication undiluted via IV piggyback
D. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes
, CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify adequate urine output before
administration
Rationale: Potassium should never be administered unless adequate renal
function is confirmed, as impaired excretion can lead to hyperkalemia and
cardiac arrest. IV potassium must always be diluted and administered via
infusion pump at a controlled rate. Rapid IV push of potassium is
contraindicated.
Question 8: A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. The nurse should monitor for
which complication?
A. Oxygen toxicity
B. Carbon dioxide retention
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Hyperoxia-induced seizures
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Carbon dioxide retention
Rationale: Clients with COPD may have a blunted respiratory drive
dependent on hypoxemia. Excessive oxygen administration can suppress
this drive, leading to carbon dioxide retention and respiratory acidosis. The
nurse must monitor for decreased respiratory rate, confusion, and
somnolence.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin
therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to
evaluate therapeutic effectiveness?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International normalized ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Bleeding time
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT)
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the aPTT, with a therapeutic
goal typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. PT and INR are used to
monitor warfarin therapy. Bleeding time is not used to evaluate heparin
effectiveness.
2026/2027 | Virtual-ATI NCLEX-RN Green Light Study
Guide & Practice Test | ATI Virtual-ATI Comprehensive
Predictor Practice Questions, NCLEX-RN Exam Prep,
NGN-Style Questions, Clinical Judgment, Case Studies,
Prioritization, Delegation, Pharmacology, Adult
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Fundamentals, Maternal-
Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Community
Health, Leadership & Management, Safety, Infection
Control, Patient Education, Test-Taking Strategies &
Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion.
The client's IV site is 20-gauge in the right forearm. Which action
should the nurse take first before initiating the transfusion?
A. Prime the blood administration tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
B. Obtain the client's vital signs for a baseline
C. Verify the blood product with a second licensed nurse
D. Assess the client's IV site for patency and signs of infiltration
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Assess the client's IV site for patency and
signs of infiltration
Rationale: Before administering any IV fluid or blood product, the nurse
must first assess the IV site for patency and complications. Initiating a
transfusion through an infiltrated or compromised IV site could cause
serious harm. While obtaining baseline vital signs and verifying the blood
product are essential steps, the initial assessment of the IV site takes
priority as the physical prerequisite for safe administration.
Question 2: A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed
furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most
closely?
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum sodium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
,Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss through
increased urinary excretion. Hypokalemia is a significant risk and can lead
to cardiac dysrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure. While other
electrolytes may be affected, potassium monitoring is the priority for safe
medication management.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative day
one following an open cholecystectomy. The client reports pain at
the surgical site. Which assessment finding should the nurse report
immediately?
A. Pain rated 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
C. Heart rate of 92 beats per minute
D. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
Rationale: A low-grade fever on postoperative day one can indicate
atelectasis, but in the context of abdominal surgery, it may also signal an
infectious process. While a temperature of 100.2°F is not immediately life-
threatening, it requires prompt evaluation. Pain and serosanguineous
drainage are expected postoperative findings, and a heart rate of 92 is
within normal limits.
Question 4: A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. The
nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider if
which assessment finding is noted?
A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
C. Serum digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL
D. Weight loss of 1 kg since admission
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
Rationale: Digoxin slows conduction through the AV node and can cause
bradycardia. The nurse should withhold digoxin if the adult apical pulse is
below 60 beats per minute. A digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL is within
therapeutic range (0.5–2.0 ng/mL). Blood pressure and weight loss do not
require withholding the medication.
,Question 5: A nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of
type 2 diabetes about foot care. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding?
A. "I will soak my feet in warm water every night."
B. "I will cut my toenails in a rounded shape."
C. "I will check my feet daily for cuts or blisters."
D. "I will apply lotion between my toes after bathing."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will check my feet daily for cuts or
blisters."
Rationale: Daily foot inspection is essential for clients with diabetes due to
the risk of neuropathy and impaired circulation. Soaking feet can lead to
maceration, toenails should be cut straight across, and lotion should not be
applied between the toes because moisture promotes fungal growth.
Question 6: A client is admitted with a diagnosis of syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing
intervention is the priority?
A. Encourage oral fluid intake
B. Monitor serum sodium levels
C. Administer prescribed diuretics
D. Restrict fluid intake as ordered
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Monitor serum sodium levels
Rationale: SIADH causes excessive water retention and dilutional
hyponatremia. Monitoring serum sodium levels is critical because severe
hyponatremia can lead to seizures and cerebral edema. While fluid
restriction is a key intervention, the nurse's priority is ongoing assessment
of sodium levels to guide safe management.
Question 7: A nurse is preparing to administer intravenous
potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is
essential?
A. Administer the medication as a rapid IV push
B. Verify adequate urine output before administration
C. Administer the medication undiluted via IV piggyback
D. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes
, CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify adequate urine output before
administration
Rationale: Potassium should never be administered unless adequate renal
function is confirmed, as impaired excretion can lead to hyperkalemia and
cardiac arrest. IV potassium must always be diluted and administered via
infusion pump at a controlled rate. Rapid IV push of potassium is
contraindicated.
Question 8: A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. The nurse should monitor for
which complication?
A. Oxygen toxicity
B. Carbon dioxide retention
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Hyperoxia-induced seizures
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Carbon dioxide retention
Rationale: Clients with COPD may have a blunted respiratory drive
dependent on hypoxemia. Excessive oxygen administration can suppress
this drive, leading to carbon dioxide retention and respiratory acidosis. The
nurse must monitor for decreased respiratory rate, confusion, and
somnolence.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin
therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to
evaluate therapeutic effectiveness?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International normalized ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Bleeding time
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT)
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the aPTT, with a therapeutic
goal typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. PT and INR are used to
monitor warfarin therapy. Bleeding time is not used to evaluate heparin
effectiveness.
