ATI Maternal Newborn 2026/2027 | ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing Study
Guide, ATI Maternal Newborn Exam Prep, Practice Questions with Answers &
Rationales, Pregnancy, Prenatal Care, Labor & Delivery, Fetal Monitoring,
Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, Newborn Complications, Maternal
Complications, High-Risk Pregnancy, Medications, Breastfeeding, Patient
Education & NCLEX-RN Review
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client at 10 weeks of gestation who reports
persistent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following interventions should the
nurse recommend first?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Increase intake of spicy foods to stimulate appetite
C. Consume large meals at bedtime to prevent nighttime nausea
D. Avoid all oral fluids until the nausea subsides
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy are best managed initially with
dietary modifications such as eating small, frequent meals to prevent the stomach
from becoming empty, which exacerbates nausea. Spicy foods may worsen gastric
irritation. Large bedtime meals can increase discomfort due to slowed gastric
emptying. Fluid avoidance risks dehydration and is not recommended.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client at 34 weeks of gestation who reports
dark red vaginal bleeding and continuous abdominal pain. Which of the
following conditions should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Placental abruption
Rationale: Placental abruption presents with dark red vaginal bleeding,
continuous abdominal pain, and a board-like abdomen due to blood trapped
behind the placenta. Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red
bleeding. Uterine rupture is characterized by sudden severe pain and loss of fetal
station. Vasa previa presents with painless bleeding and fetal bradycardia.
,Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is
experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the
nurse anticipate administering to promote fetal lung maturity?
A. Misoprostol
B. Betamethasone
C. Poractant alfa
D. Methylergonovine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Betamethasone
Rationale: Betamethasone is an antenatal corticosteroid administered between
24 and 34 weeks of gestation when preterm birth is anticipated. It accelerates
fetal lung maturation by stimulating surfactant production, reducing the incidence
and severity of respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and
neonatal mortality. Misoprostol is used for cervical ripening. Poractant alfa is a
surfactant given to the newborn after birth. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic for
postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client at 35 weeks of gestation who has severe
preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
B. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 14/min
D. Magnesium level of 6 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is excreted renally, and a urine output of less than
30 mL/hr indicates impaired renal function, placing the client at risk for
magnesium toxicity. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are normal. A respiratory rate of
14/min is within normal limits. A magnesium level of 6 mEq/L is within the
therapeutic range for seizure prophylaxis.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a postpartum client 8 hours after delivery.
Which of the following factors places the client at risk for uterine atony?
,A. Oxytocin infusion
B. Prolonged labor
C. Small-for-gestational-age newborn
D. Early ambulation
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Prolonged labor
Rationale: Prolonged labor stretches and fatigues the uterine musculature,
impairing its ability to contract effectively after delivery and increasing the risk of
uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin promotes uterine
contractions and prevents atony. A small-for-gestational-age newborn is not
associated with uterine overdistention. Early ambulation does not contribute to
atony.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a newborn for developmental dysplasia of the
hip. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Temperature difference between the legs
B. Symmetrical gluteal folds
C. Limited abduction of the affected hip
D. Legs shorter than the arms
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Limited abduction of the affected hip
Rationale: Developmental dysplasia of the hip involves improper seating of the
femoral head in the acetabulum, resulting in limited abduction of the affected
hip. Asymmetrical gluteal folds, not symmetrical, are a classic sign. Temperature
differences between legs are not associated with hip dysplasia. Newborns
normally have proportionally shorter legs than arms.
Question 7: A nurse is testing a newborn's reflexes by quickly and gently turning
the head to one side while the newborn is supine. Which reflex is the nurse
assessing?
A. Moro reflex
B. Babinski reflex
C. Rooting reflex
D. Tonic neck reflex
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Tonic neck reflex
, Rationale: The tonic neck reflex, also known as the fencing reflex, is elicited by
turning the newborn's head to one side. The arm and leg on the side to which the
head is turned extend, while the opposite arm and leg flex. The Moro reflex is
elicited by a sudden loss of head support. The Babinski reflex is elicited by
stroking the sole of the foot. The rooting reflex is elicited by stroking the cheek.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a newborn born at 39 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as consistent with a
full-term newborn?
A. Abundant lanugo on the back
B. Dry, wrinkled skin
C. Symmetric rib cage with good chest expansion
D. Vernix covering the entire body
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Symmetric rib cage with good chest expansion
Rationale: A full-term newborn at 39 weeks has a symmetric rib cage with good
chest expansion. Abundant lanugo on the back is characteristic of preterm
newborns. Dry, wrinkled skin is seen in post-term newborns. Vernix covering the
entire body is more common in preterm newborns; in full-term newborns, vernix
is typically found in skin folds.
Question 9: A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes an egg-shaped,
edematous, bluish discoloration on the scalp that does not cross the suture line.
Which of the following should the nurse document?
A. Caput succedaneum
B. Cephalohematoma
C. Subgaleal hemorrhage
D. Molding
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Cephalohematoma
Rationale: Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the periosteum
and the skull bone that does not cross the suture line and appears as an egg-
shaped, edematous, bluish discoloration. Caput succedaneum crosses suture lines
and is edematous but not typically bluish. Subgaleal hemorrhage is a life-
Guide, ATI Maternal Newborn Exam Prep, Practice Questions with Answers &
Rationales, Pregnancy, Prenatal Care, Labor & Delivery, Fetal Monitoring,
Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, Newborn Complications, Maternal
Complications, High-Risk Pregnancy, Medications, Breastfeeding, Patient
Education & NCLEX-RN Review
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client at 10 weeks of gestation who reports
persistent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following interventions should the
nurse recommend first?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Increase intake of spicy foods to stimulate appetite
C. Consume large meals at bedtime to prevent nighttime nausea
D. Avoid all oral fluids until the nausea subsides
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy are best managed initially with
dietary modifications such as eating small, frequent meals to prevent the stomach
from becoming empty, which exacerbates nausea. Spicy foods may worsen gastric
irritation. Large bedtime meals can increase discomfort due to slowed gastric
emptying. Fluid avoidance risks dehydration and is not recommended.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client at 34 weeks of gestation who reports
dark red vaginal bleeding and continuous abdominal pain. Which of the
following conditions should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Placental abruption
Rationale: Placental abruption presents with dark red vaginal bleeding,
continuous abdominal pain, and a board-like abdomen due to blood trapped
behind the placenta. Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red
bleeding. Uterine rupture is characterized by sudden severe pain and loss of fetal
station. Vasa previa presents with painless bleeding and fetal bradycardia.
,Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is
experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the
nurse anticipate administering to promote fetal lung maturity?
A. Misoprostol
B. Betamethasone
C. Poractant alfa
D. Methylergonovine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Betamethasone
Rationale: Betamethasone is an antenatal corticosteroid administered between
24 and 34 weeks of gestation when preterm birth is anticipated. It accelerates
fetal lung maturation by stimulating surfactant production, reducing the incidence
and severity of respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and
neonatal mortality. Misoprostol is used for cervical ripening. Poractant alfa is a
surfactant given to the newborn after birth. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic for
postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client at 35 weeks of gestation who has severe
preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
B. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 14/min
D. Magnesium level of 6 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is excreted renally, and a urine output of less than
30 mL/hr indicates impaired renal function, placing the client at risk for
magnesium toxicity. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are normal. A respiratory rate of
14/min is within normal limits. A magnesium level of 6 mEq/L is within the
therapeutic range for seizure prophylaxis.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a postpartum client 8 hours after delivery.
Which of the following factors places the client at risk for uterine atony?
,A. Oxytocin infusion
B. Prolonged labor
C. Small-for-gestational-age newborn
D. Early ambulation
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Prolonged labor
Rationale: Prolonged labor stretches and fatigues the uterine musculature,
impairing its ability to contract effectively after delivery and increasing the risk of
uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin promotes uterine
contractions and prevents atony. A small-for-gestational-age newborn is not
associated with uterine overdistention. Early ambulation does not contribute to
atony.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a newborn for developmental dysplasia of the
hip. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Temperature difference between the legs
B. Symmetrical gluteal folds
C. Limited abduction of the affected hip
D. Legs shorter than the arms
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Limited abduction of the affected hip
Rationale: Developmental dysplasia of the hip involves improper seating of the
femoral head in the acetabulum, resulting in limited abduction of the affected
hip. Asymmetrical gluteal folds, not symmetrical, are a classic sign. Temperature
differences between legs are not associated with hip dysplasia. Newborns
normally have proportionally shorter legs than arms.
Question 7: A nurse is testing a newborn's reflexes by quickly and gently turning
the head to one side while the newborn is supine. Which reflex is the nurse
assessing?
A. Moro reflex
B. Babinski reflex
C. Rooting reflex
D. Tonic neck reflex
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Tonic neck reflex
, Rationale: The tonic neck reflex, also known as the fencing reflex, is elicited by
turning the newborn's head to one side. The arm and leg on the side to which the
head is turned extend, while the opposite arm and leg flex. The Moro reflex is
elicited by a sudden loss of head support. The Babinski reflex is elicited by
stroking the sole of the foot. The rooting reflex is elicited by stroking the cheek.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a newborn born at 39 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as consistent with a
full-term newborn?
A. Abundant lanugo on the back
B. Dry, wrinkled skin
C. Symmetric rib cage with good chest expansion
D. Vernix covering the entire body
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Symmetric rib cage with good chest expansion
Rationale: A full-term newborn at 39 weeks has a symmetric rib cage with good
chest expansion. Abundant lanugo on the back is characteristic of preterm
newborns. Dry, wrinkled skin is seen in post-term newborns. Vernix covering the
entire body is more common in preterm newborns; in full-term newborns, vernix
is typically found in skin folds.
Question 9: A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes an egg-shaped,
edematous, bluish discoloration on the scalp that does not cross the suture line.
Which of the following should the nurse document?
A. Caput succedaneum
B. Cephalohematoma
C. Subgaleal hemorrhage
D. Molding
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Cephalohematoma
Rationale: Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the periosteum
and the skull bone that does not cross the suture line and appears as an egg-
shaped, edematous, bluish discoloration. Caput succedaneum crosses suture lines
and is edematous but not typically bluish. Subgaleal hemorrhage is a life-
